NEETPG, INICET, FMGE PYT
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📈 Аналітичний огляд Telegram-каналу NEETPG, INICET, FMGE PYT
Канал NEETPG, INICET, FMGE PYT (@neetpg_pyt) у мовному сегменті Англійська є активним учасником. На даний момент спільнота об'єднує 21 591 підписників, посідаючи 1 048 місце в категорії Медицина та 19 400 місце у регіоні Індія.
📊 Показники аудиторії та динаміка
З моменту свого створення невідомо, проект продемонстрував стрімке зростання, зібравши аудиторію у 21 591 підписників.
За останніми даними від 14 липня, 2026, канал демонструє стабільну активність. Хоча за останні 30 днів спостерігається зміна кількості учасників на 631, а за останні 24 години на 14, загальне охоплення залишається високим.
- Статус верифікації: Не верифікований
- Рівень залученості (ER): Середній показник залученості аудиторії становить 10.89%. Протягом перших 24 годин після публікації контент зазвичай збирає 4.96% реакцій від загальної кількості підписників.
- Охоплення публікацій: В середньому кожен допис отримує 2 352 переглядів. Протягом першої доби публікація в середньому набирає 1 071 переглядів.
- Реакції та взаємодія: Аудиторія активно підтримує контент: середня кількість реакцій на один пост – 8.
- Тематичні інтереси: Контент зосереджений навколо ключових тем, таких як patient, nerve, deficiency, present, disease.
📝 Опис та контентна політика
Автор описує ресурс як майданчик для висловлення суб'єктивної думки:
“PRIMIUM CONTENT ✨
- Any query contact- @Drconcept”
Завдяки високій частоті оновлень (останні дані отримано 15 липня, 2026), канал підтримує актуальність та високий рівень охоплення публікацій. Аналітика показує, що аудиторія активно взаємодіє з контентом, що робить його важливою точкою впливу в категорії Медицина.
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| Дата | Залучення підписників | Згадування | Канали | |
| 15 липня | +7 | |||
| 14 липня | +14 | |||
| 13 липня | +18 | |||
| 12 липня | +14 | |||
| 11 липня | +11 | |||
| 10 липня | +26 | |||
| 09 липня | +20 | |||
| 08 липня | +42 | |||
| 07 липня | +129 | |||
| 06 липня | +11 | |||
| 05 липня | +8 | |||
| 04 липня | +8 | |||
| 03 липня | +8 | |||
| 02 липня | +14 | |||
| 01 липня | +8 |
Дописи каналу
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| 2 | Your score? | 702 |
| 3 | Q1. B — Acute otitis media commonly follows URTI and presents with a congested, bulging tympanic membrane.
Q2. A — Malignant otitis externa is usually caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa, especially in diabetics.
Q3. C — Ménière disease presents with the triad of episodic vertigo, tinnitus, and fluctuating hearing loss.
Q4. D — Attic perforation with keratin debris is characteristic of cholesteatoma, which causes bone erosion.
Q5. C — BPPV causes brief positional vertigo with positive Dix-Hallpike test due to canalithiasis.
Q6. A — Otosclerosis causes progressive conductive hearing loss with Carhart notch at 2000 Hz.
Q7. D — Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma is a vascular tumor causing epistaxis in adolescent males.
Q8. B — Lateral nasopharyngeal X-ray is a common screening investigation for adenoid hypertrophy.
Q9. C — Seasonal sneezing, itching, and watery rhinorrhea are classical features of allergic rhinitis.
Q10. D — Maxillary sinus is the most frequently involved sinus in acute sinusitis.
Q11. A — Little's area (Kiesselbach plexus) is the commonest site of anterior epistaxis.
Q12. B — Unilateral foul-smelling discharge in a child strongly suggests nasal foreign body.
Q13. D — Persistent hoarseness in smokers should raise suspicion of laryngeal carcinoma.
Q14. C — Vocal nodules occur at the junction of anterior one-third and posterior two-thirds of vocal cords.
Q15. B — Acute laryngotracheobronchitis (croup) causes barking cough and inspiratory stridor.
Q16. D — Epiglottitis presents with fever, drooling, tripod position, and airway emergency.
Q17. A — Hypoglossal nerve injury causes tongue deviation toward the side of lesion.
Q18. C — Peritonsillar abscess presents with uvular deviation and characteristic hot potato voice.
Q19. D — The facial nerve traverses the fallopian canal and may be affected by cholesteatoma.
Q20. A — Negative Rinne with Weber lateralizing to affected ear indicates conductive hearing loss.
Q21. B — Acoustic neuroma causes unilateral SNHL and cerebellopontine angle mass.
Q22. C — Thyroglossal cyst moves with tongue protrusion due to attachment to the tract.
Q23. D — Orbital cellulitis is the commonest serious orbital complication of sinusitis.
Q24. A — Presbycusis is age-related bilateral high-frequency sensorineural hearing loss.
Q25. C — Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma arises near the sphenopalatine foramen and bleeds easily.
Q26. B — Stensen's duct drains the parotid gland and may be obstructed by stones.
Q27. D — Unilateral blood-stained nasal discharge with mass should be considered malignant until excluded.
Q28. C — Leukoplakia is a premalignant white patch that cannot be scraped off.
Q29. A — Spinal accessory nerve injury causes shoulder droop and inability to shrug shoulder.
Q30. B — Presbycusis results from degeneration of cochlear hair cells causing SNHL. | 734 |
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| 5 | Answers will be available at 5 pm today ✅👇 | 779 |
| 6 | Q30. A patient presents with bilateral progressive hearing loss due to degeneration of hair cells in the organ of Corti. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Otosclerosis
B. Presbycusis
C. Otitis media
D. Tympanosclerosis | 741 |
| 7 | Q15. A child develops barking cough, inspiratory stridor, and hoarseness following a viral upper respiratory infection. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Acute epiglottitis
B. Acute laryngotracheobronchitis
C. Diphtheria
D. Retropharyngeal abscess
Q16. A 4-year-old child presents with high fever, drooling, dysphagia, and sitting in tripod position. Which diagnosis should be considered first?
A. Croup
B. Peritonsillar abscess
C. Retropharyngeal abscess
D. Acute epiglottitis
Q17. A patient develops deviation of tongue to the right side on protrusion following neck surgery. Which cranial nerve has been injured?
A. Hypoglossal nerve
B. Glossopharyngeal nerve
C. Vagus nerve
D. Facial nerve
Q18. A patient presents with severe sore throat, muffled "hot potato" voice, and uvular deviation to the opposite side. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Acute tonsillitis
B. Retropharyngeal abscess
C. Peritonsillar abscess
D. Ludwig angina
Q19. A patient develops facial nerve palsy following chronic ear disease with cholesteatoma. Through which part of temporal bone does the facial nerve most commonly become involved?
A. Internal auditory canal
B. Mastoid cortex
C. Stylomastoid foramen
D. Fallopian canal
Q20. A patient with unilateral conductive hearing loss has Weber test lateralizing to the affected ear and Rinne test negative on the same side. Which type of hearing loss is present?
A. Conductive hearing loss
B. Sensorineural hearing loss
C. Mixed hearing loss
D. Central hearing loss
Q21. A patient presents with progressive unilateral sensorineural hearing loss and imbalance. MRI reveals a cerebellopontine angle tumor. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Meningioma
B. Acoustic neuroma
C. Cholesteatoma
D. Glomus jugulare tumor
Q22. A child develops recurrent painless swelling over the upper neck that increases during upper respiratory tract infections. The swelling moves with protrusion of tongue. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Branchial cyst
B. Dermoid cyst
C. Thyroglossal cyst
D. Cystic hygroma
Q23. A patient with chronic rhinosinusitis develops painful swelling near the medial canthus with displacement of the eyeball. Which sinus complication is most likely?
A. Cavernous sinus thrombosis
B. Meningitis
C. Orbital cellulitis
D. Brain abscess
Q24. A patient complains of inability to perceive high-frequency sounds with advancing age. Audiometry confirms bilateral symmetrical sensorineural hearing loss. What is the diagnosis?
A. Presbycusis
B. Otosclerosis
C. Noise-induced hearing loss
D. Ménière disease
Q25. A young adult develops recurrent episodes of bleeding from the nose and nasal obstruction. Endoscopy reveals a highly vascular mass arising near the sphenopalatine foramen. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Inverted papilloma
B. Ethmoidal polyp
C. Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma
D. Hemangioma
Q26. A patient presents with painful swelling of the parotid gland during meals. Imaging reveals a radio-opaque stone within the duct. Which duct is involved?
A. Wharton's duct
B. Stensen's duct
C. Rivinus duct
D. Bartholin duct
Q27. A patient presents with unilateral nasal obstruction and blood-stained nasal discharge. Examination reveals a friable mass in the nasal cavity. Which diagnosis should be considered until proven otherwise?
A. Antrochoanal polyp
B. Allergic polyp
C. Deviated nasal septum
D. Malignancy of nose and paranasal sinus
Q28. A patient with chronic smoking history presents with persistent white patch over the vocal cord that cannot be scraped off. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Oral candidiasis
B. Aphthous ulcer
C. Leukoplakia
D. Lichen planus
Q29. A patient develops inability to shrug the shoulder and difficulty turning the head after lymph node biopsy in the posterior triangle of neck. Which nerve is injured?
A. Spinal accessory nerve
B. Hypoglossal nerve
C. Vagus nerve
D. Facial nerve | 719 |
| 8 | Q1. A 5-year-old child presents with fever, ear pain, and irritability for 2 days following an upper respiratory tract infection. Otoscopy reveals a congested, bulging tympanic membrane with loss of landmarks. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Otitis externa
B. Acute otitis media
C. Serous otitis media
D. Chronic suppurative otitis media
Q2. A 45-year-old diabetic man presents with severe otalgia disproportionate to examination findings and purulent ear discharge. Granulation tissue is seen at the bony-cartilaginous junction of the external auditory canal. Which organism is most commonly responsible?
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Klebsiella pneumoniae
Q3. A 22-year-old woman presents with episodic vertigo lasting several hours associated with tinnitus and fluctuating hearing loss. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Vestibular neuritis
B. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
C. Ménière disease
D. Acoustic neuroma
Q4. A patient presents with foul-smelling ear discharge and hearing loss for many years. Examination reveals an attic perforation with keratin debris. Which complication is most commonly associated?
A. Tympanosclerosis
B. Otosclerosis
C. Serous labyrinthitis
D. Cholesteatoma
Q5. A patient complains of sudden onset severe spinning sensation lasting less than one minute on turning in bed. Dix-Hallpike test reproduces symptoms and nystagmus. What is the diagnosis?
A. Labyrinthitis
B. Ménière disease
C. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
D. Vestibular migraine
Q6. A young woman presents with progressive conductive hearing loss and normal tympanic membrane examination. Pure tone audiometry shows Carhart notch at 2000 Hz. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Otosclerosis
B. Cholesteatoma
C. Glue ear
D. Presbycusis
Q7. A child presents with nasal obstruction and recurrent episodes of epistaxis. Examination reveals a reddish mass in the nasopharynx that bleeds on touch. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Nasal polyp
B. Antrochoanal polyp
C. Inverted papilloma
D. Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma
Q8. A 10-year-old child presents with mouth breathing, snoring, and recurrent ear infections. Examination suggests enlarged adenoids. Which investigation is most useful for confirmation?
A. CT scan paranasal sinuses
B. X-ray nasopharynx lateral view
C. MRI neck
D. Tympanometry
Q9. A patient presents with recurrent sneezing, watery rhinorrhea, and nasal itching, especially during spring season. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Acute sinusitis
B. Vasomotor rhinitis
C. Allergic rhinitis
D. Atrophic rhinitis
Q10. A 35-year-old man develops severe facial pain, purulent nasal discharge, and fever following an upper respiratory infection. Which sinus is most commonly involved in acute sinusitis?
A. Frontal sinus
B. Sphenoid sinus
C. Ethmoid sinus
D. Maxillary sinus
Q11. A patient presents with recurrent spontaneous epistaxis from the anterior part of the nasal septum. Which area is most commonly involved?
A. Little's area
B. Woodruff plexus
C. Rosenmüller fossa
D. Fossa of Killian
Q12. A child presents with unilateral foul-smelling nasal discharge and nasal obstruction for several weeks. Which diagnosis should be suspected first?
A. Nasal polyp
B. Nasal foreign body
C. Allergic rhinitis
D. Adenoid hypertrophy
Q13. A 50-year-old smoker presents with persistent hoarseness for 3 months. Indirect laryngoscopy reveals an ulceroproliferative lesion involving the vocal cord. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Vocal nodule
B. Laryngeal papilloma
C. Chronic laryngitis
D. Carcinoma larynx
Q14. A school teacher presents with progressive hoarseness without pain or dysphagia. Laryngoscopy reveals bilateral symmetrical swellings at the junction of anterior one-third and posterior two-thirds of the vocal cords. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Vocal cord polyp
B. Reinke edema
C. Vocal nodules
D. Laryngeal carcinoma | 645 |
| 9 | Today questions on ENT✅👇 | 670 |
| 10 |  🎯 | 923 |
| 11 | Your score? | 1 078 |
| 12 | Q1. B — CRAO presents with sudden painless monocular vision loss and a characteristic cherry-red spot.
Q2. A — Nuclear cataract causes progressive myopia and yellow-brown discoloration of the nucleus.
Q3. C — Corneal ulcer presents with pain, photophobia, epithelial defect, and stromal infiltrate.
Q4. D — Acute angle-closure glaucoma causes painful red eye, halos, mid-dilated pupil, and raised IOP.
Q5. C — Ophthalmia neonatorum due to gonococcus occurs within 2–5 days after birth and is severe.
Q6. A — Timolol reduces aqueous humor production and is commonly used in chronic glaucoma.
Q7. D — Flashes, floaters, and curtain-like vision loss are classic features of retinal detachment.
Q8. B — Optic neuritis causes painful vision loss with pain on eye movement and may have a normal fundus initially.
Q9. C — Congenital glaucoma presents with epiphora, photophobia, blepharospasm, and buphthalmos.
Q10. D — NPDR is characterized by microaneurysms, hemorrhages, and cotton wool spots without neovascularization.
Q11. A — Myopia causes defective distant vision while near vision remains relatively preserved.
Q12. B — Orbital floor blowout fracture commonly causes diplopia with restricted upward gaze.
Q13. D — Papilledema is bilateral disc swelling due to raised intracranial pressure with preserved vision initially.
Q14. C — Drusen with central vision loss in elderly patients indicates age-related macular degeneration.
Q15. B — Keratic precipitates are inflammatory deposits on corneal endothelium seen in anterior uveitis.
Q16. D — Retinoblastoma classically presents with leukocoria, strabismus, and intraocular calcification.
Q17. A — POAG causes gradual painless vision loss with optic disc cupping and raised IOP.
Q18. C — Methanol toxicity primarily damages the optic nerve leading to central scotoma and blindness.
Q19. D — Cells and flare in the anterior chamber are hallmark signs of anterior uveitis.
Q20. A — Keratoconus causes progressive thinning and conical protrusion of the cornea.
Q21. B — Chronic follicular conjunctivitis with trichiasis in endemic areas suggests trachoma due to Chlamydia.
Q22. C — CRVO produces the classic "blood and thunder" appearance on fundoscopy.
Q23. D — Orbital cellulitis presents with fever, painful proptosis, and restricted extraocular movements.
Q24. A — Esotropia refers to inward deviation of one eye with normal ocular movements.
Q25. C — Bone spicule pigmentation and night blindness are classic for retinitis pigmentosa.
Q26. B — Regurgitation on pressure over lacrimal sac is characteristic of chronic dacryocystitis.
Q27. D — Mydriasis caused by atropine may precipitate acute angle-closure glaucoma.
Q28. C — Adenovirus is the commonest cause of viral conjunctivitis with preauricular lymphadenopathy.
Q29. A — Internuclear ophthalmoplegia occurs due to lesion of the medial longitudinal fasciculus.
Q30. B — Neovascularization of disc and retina defines proliferative diabetic retinopathy. | 1 121 |
| 13 | Answers will be available at 5 pm ✅👇 | 987 |
| 14 | Q15. A patient with recurrent episodes of redness, pain, photophobia, and circumcorneal congestion is diagnosed with anterior uveitis. Which ocular sign is commonly associated?
A. Proptosis
B. Keratic precipitates
C. Cherry-red spot
D. Argyll Robertson pupil
Q16. A child presents with leukocoria and strabismus. Fundus examination reveals a calcified retinal mass. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Congenital cataract
B. Persistent hyperplastic primary vitreous
C. Coats disease
D. Retinoblastoma
Q17. A patient develops gradual painless bilateral visual impairment with elevated intraocular pressure and optic disc cupping. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Primary open-angle glaucoma
B. Acute glaucoma
C. Secondary glaucoma
D. Lens-induced glaucoma
Q18. A patient presents with defective color vision and central scotoma following methanol poisoning. Which structure is primarily affected?
A. Retina
B. Cornea
C. Optic nerve
D. Lens
Q19. A 35-year-old man develops painful red eye with ciliary congestion and irregular pupil after trauma. Slit lamp examination reveals cells and flare in the anterior chamber. What is the diagnosis?
A. Conjunctivitis
B. Episcleritis
C. Scleritis
D. Anterior uveitis
Q20. A patient with progressive myopia develops cone-shaped protrusion of the cornea with irregular astigmatism. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Keratoconus
B. Keratitis
C. Corneal ulcer
D. Pterygium
Q21. A patient presents with chronic mucopurulent conjunctivitis and trichiasis in an endemic area. Which organism is responsible?
A. Adenovirus
B. Chlamydia trachomatis
C. Staphylococcus epidermidis
D. Haemophilus influenzae
Q22. A patient develops sudden painless loss of vision with "blood and thunder" appearance on fundoscopy. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Central retinal artery occlusion
B. Diabetic retinopathy
C. Central retinal vein occlusion
D. Retinal detachment
Q23. A patient presents with painful proptosis, restricted eye movements, and fever following sinusitis. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Thyroid ophthalmopathy
B. Orbital tumor
C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis
D. Orbital cellulitis
Q24. A child presents with inward deviation of one eye since infancy without limitation of movements. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Esotropia
B. Exotropia
C. Hypertropia
D. Hypotropia
Q25. A patient complains of night blindness since childhood. Fundus examination shows bone spicule pigmentation in the peripheral retina. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Vitamin A deficiency
B. Macular degeneration
C. Retinitis pigmentosa
D. Retinal detachment
Q26. A patient presents with watering and swelling near the medial canthus. Pressure over the lacrimal sac produces regurgitation through puncta. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Canaliculitis
B. Chronic dacryocystitis
C. Hordeolum externum
D. Chalazion
Q27. A patient develops severe ocular pain and corneal edema after accidental instillation of atropine drops in an anatomically predisposed eye. Which condition was precipitated?
A. Uveitis
B. Keratitis
C. Open-angle glaucoma
D. Acute angle-closure glaucoma
Q28. A patient develops bilateral conjunctivitis associated with preauricular lymphadenopathy and watery discharge. Which organism is the commonest cause?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Chlamydia trachomatis
C. Adenovirus
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Q29. A patient complains of inability to adduct one eye with nystagmus of the abducting eye on lateral gaze. Which lesion is responsible?
A. Medial longitudinal fasciculus lesion
B. Optic nerve lesion
C. Oculomotor nerve palsy
D. Trochlear nerve palsy
Q30. A patient with long-standing diabetes develops neovascularization over the disc and elsewhere in the retina. Which stage of diabetic retinopathy is present?
A. Background diabetic retinopathy
B. Proliferative diabetic retinopathy
C. Severe NPDR
D. Macular edema | 1 082 |
| 15 | Q1. A 68-year-old diabetic man presents with sudden painless loss of vision in the right eye upon waking up. Fundus examination reveals a cherry-red spot at the macula with retinal whitening. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Central retinal vein occlusion
B. Central retinal artery occlusion
C. Retinal detachment
D. Vitreous hemorrhage
Q2. A 65-year-old woman complains of gradual progressive blurring of vision and difficulty reading in dim light. Slit lamp examination reveals yellow-brown nuclear opacity of the lens. Which type of cataract is present?
A. Nuclear cataract
B. Cortical cataract
C. Posterior subcapsular cataract
D. Traumatic cataract
Q3. A 25-year-old contact lens user presents with severe pain, photophobia, and redness in one eye. Fluorescein staining reveals a corneal epithelial defect with stromal infiltrate. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Episcleritis
B. Acute iridocyclitis
C. Corneal ulcer
D. Subconjunctival hemorrhage
Q4. A 60-year-old man presents with severe ocular pain, headache, nausea, and halos around lights. Examination reveals a mid-dilated fixed pupil and raised intraocular pressure. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Open-angle glaucoma
B. Optic neuritis
C. Uveitis
D. Acute angle-closure glaucoma
Q5. A newborn develops purulent conjunctivitis 3 days after birth with marked eyelid edema. Gram stain shows intracellular gram-negative diplococci. Which organism is responsible?
A. Chlamydia trachomatis
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Q6. A patient with chronic glaucoma is prescribed eye drops that reduce aqueous humor production by beta blockade. Which drug is most likely prescribed?
A. Timolol
B. Pilocarpine
C. Atropine
D. Acetazolamide
Q7. A patient presents with flashes of light, floaters, and a curtain descending over the field of vision. Fundus examination confirms retinal separation from underlying layers. What is the diagnosis?
A. Macular degeneration
B. Vitreous hemorrhage
C. Central retinal artery occlusion
D. Retinal detachment
Q8. A 22-year-old woman develops painful loss of vision and pain on eye movement. Fundus examination is initially normal. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Papilledema
B. Optic neuritis
C. Retinitis pigmentosa
D. Cataract
Q9. A child presents with watering, photophobia, and blepharospasm since infancy. Examination reveals enlarged corneal diameter and elevated intraocular pressure. What is the diagnosis?
A. Congenital cataract
B. Retinoblastoma
C. Congenital glaucoma
D. Keratoconus
Q10. A 55-year-old diabetic presents with multiple retinal hemorrhages, microaneurysms, and cotton wool spots without neovascularization. Which stage of diabetic retinopathy is present?
A. Proliferative diabetic retinopathy
B. Advanced diabetic eye disease
C. Traction retinal detachment
D. Non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy
Q11. A patient complains of inability to see distant objects clearly while near vision remains normal. Which refractive error is present?
A. Myopia
B. Hypermetropia
C. Presbyopia
D. Astigmatism
Q12. A patient with blunt trauma to the orbit develops inability to elevate the eye and diplopia on upward gaze. Which orbital wall fracture is most likely?
A. Lateral wall fracture
B. Blowout fracture of orbital floor
C. Roof fracture
D. Medial wall fracture
Q13. A patient presents with bilateral optic disc swelling due to raised intracranial pressure but initially preserved visual acuity. What is this condition called?
A. Optic atrophy
B. Optic neuritis
C. Anterior ischemic optic neuropathy
D. Papilledema
Q14. A 70-year-old smoker develops progressive central vision loss with drusen seen on fundus examination. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Diabetic retinopathy
B. Retinal detachment
C. Age-related macular degeneration
D. Central retinal artery occlusion | 977 |
| 16 | Today questions on Opthamology ✅👇 | 922 |
| 17 | 𝗙𝗼𝗰𝘂𝘀 𝗻𝗼𝘄, 𝘀𝗼 𝗹𝗶𝗳𝗲 𝗰𝗮𝗻 𝗿𝗲𝗹𝗮𝘅 𝗹𝗮𝘁𝗲𝗿. | 1 176 |
| 18 | Your score? | 1 329 |
| 19 | Q1. B — Prevalence measures all existing cases of disease in a population at a particular point or period of time.
Q2. A — The index case is the first case identified by health authorities during an outbreak investigation.
Q3. C — Cohort studies follow exposed and unexposed individuals over time to determine disease occurrence.
Q4. D — A highly sensitive test detects nearly all diseased individuals but may increase false positives.
Q5. C — Case-control studies are efficient in outbreak investigations for identifying potential exposures.
Q6. A — Low birth weight is defined as birth weight less than 2.5 kg irrespective of gestational age.
Q7. D — Acute flaccid paralysis is an immediately notifiable event requiring urgent reporting.
Q8. B — Birth and death registration data are collected under the Civil Registration System.
Q9. C — Vaccination is a form of specific protection under primary prevention.
Q10. D — Incidence rate measures newly occurring cases in a defined population over a period.
Q11. A — Relative risk expresses the strength of association between exposure and disease.
Q12. B — Secondary attack rate estimates spread among susceptible contacts of primary cases.
Q13. D — Community trials allocate interventions at community rather than individual level.
Q14. C — Correlation coefficient measures the strength and direction of relationship between variables.
Q15. B — Positive predictive value increases as prevalence of disease increases.
Q16. D — Immunization prevents disease occurrence and is therefore primary prevention.
Q17. A — Primordial prevention aims to prevent development of risk factors themselves.
Q18. C — Case fatality rate measures severity by calculating deaths among diagnosed cases.
Q19. D — Cross-sectional studies measure exposure and disease simultaneously at one point in time.
Q20. A — Vaccination aims to prevent disease occurrence and belongs to primary prevention.
Q21. B — Case-control studies start with disease status and assess prior exposure history.
Q22. C — Secondary attack rate measures transmission among contacts within one incubation period.
Q23. D — Screening tests prioritize sensitivity to avoid missing true cases.
Q24. A — Student t-test compares means between two independent groups.
Q25. C — Attack rate is commonly used during outbreaks to assess risk among exposed persons.
Q26. B — Civil Registration System continuously records births and deaths by law.
Q27. D — Rehabilitation after stroke is a component of tertiary prevention.
Q28. C — Odds ratio is the principal measure of association in case-control studies.
Q29. A — Attributable risk equals incidence in exposed minus incidence in unexposed individuals.
Q30. B — NFHS provides national data on fertility, health, nutrition, and family planning indicators. | 1 398 |
| 20 | Answers will be available at 5 pm today ✅👇 | 1 315 |
