NEETPG, INICET, FMGE PYT

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PRIMIUM CONTENT ✨ - Any query contact- @Drconcept

📈 Análisis del canal de Telegram NEETPG, INICET, FMGE PYT

El canal NEETPG, INICET, FMGE PYT (@neetpg_pyt) en el segmento lingüístico de Inglés es un actor destacado. Actualmente la comunidad reúne a 21 299 suscriptores, ocupando la posición 1 062 en la categoría Medicina y el puesto 19 829 en la región India.

📊 Métricas de audiencia y dinámica

Desde su creación el невідомо, el proyecto ha mostrado un crecimiento acelerado, reuniendo a 21 299 suscriptores.

Según los últimos datos del 04 julio, 2026, el canal mantiene una actividad estable. En los últimos 30 días la variación de miembros fue de 726, y en las últimas 24 horas de 8, conservando un alto alcance.

Estado de verificación: No verificado
Tasa de interacción (ER): El promedio de interacción de la audiencia es 10.08%. Durante las primeras 24 horas tras publicar, el contenido suele obtener 4.84% de reacciones respecto al total de suscriptores.
Alcance de las publicaciones: Cada publicación recibe en promedio 2 147 visualizaciones. En el primer día suele acumular 1 031 visualizaciones.
Reacciones e interacción: La audiencia responde de forma activa: el promedio de reacciones por publicación es 9.
Intereses temáticos: El contenido se centra en temas clave como patient, nerve, deficiency, present, disease.

📝 Descripción y política de contenido

El autor describe el recurso como un espacio para expresar opiniones subjetivas:
“PRIMIUM CONTENT ✨ - Any query contact- @Drconcept”

Gracias a la alta frecuencia de actualizaciones (últimos datos recibidos el 05 julio, 2026), el canal mantiene la vigencia y un amplio alcance. La analítica demuestra que la audiencia interactúa activamente con el contenido, lo que lo convierte en un punto de referencia dentro de la categoría Medicina.

21 299

Suscriptores

+824 horas

+767 días

+72630 días

2 147

Visitas de la publicación

~ 1 03124 horas

~ 1 28548 horas

10.08%

Tasa de compromiso

~ 4

Mensajes por día

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Fecha	Crecimiento de Suscriptores	Menciones	Canales
05 julio	+3
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Publicaciones del Canal

Your score?

Anonymous voting

2	ANS Q1. B — Von Gierke disease is due to glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency causing fasting hypoglycemia, hepatomegaly, hyperlactatemia, and hyperuricemia. Q2. A — Vitamin B12 deficiency causes elevated methylmalonic acid and megaloblastic anemia, especially in strict vegans. Q3. C — Classic galactosemia results from galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase deficiency with accumulation of galactose-1-phosphate. Q4. D — Phenylketonuria results from phenylalanine hydroxylase deficiency leading to phenylalanine accumulation. Q5. C — Mitochondrial HMG-CoA synthase is the rate-limiting enzyme for ketone body synthesis. Q6. A — Pompe disease is caused by lysosomal acid maltase deficiency and involves both skeletal and cardiac muscle. Q7. D — Thiamine deficiency impairs pyruvate dehydrogenase activity causing Wernicke encephalopathy in alcoholics. Q8. B — Isoniazid increases pyridoxine deficiency, leading to peripheral neuropathy which is prevented by vitamin B6 supplementation. Q9. C — G6PD deficiency causes oxidative hemolysis with Heinz bodies and bite cells after oxidative stress. Q10. D — Vitamin B12 deficiency impairs homocysteine metabolism and contributes to vascular disease. Q11. A — Alkaptonuria is due to homogentisate oxidase deficiency causing ochronosis and dark urine. Q12. B — OTC deficiency is the most common urea cycle disorder and presents with hyperammonemia and elevated orotic acid. Q13. D — Vitamin K deficiency impairs γ-carboxylation of clotting factors and prolongs PT first. Q14. C — Hereditary fructose intolerance is due to aldolase B deficiency causing hypoglycemia after fructose intake. Q15. B — Folinic acid rescue bypasses DHFR inhibition and reduces methotrexate toxicity. Q16. D — Humans lack uricase; therefore uric acid is the final product of purine metabolism. Q17. A — Biotin deficiency causes dermatitis, alopecia, and enteritis, especially with prolonged TPN. Q18. C — Carnitine is required for transport of long-chain fatty acids into mitochondria for β-oxidation. Q19. D — Factor VII has the shortest half-life and is affected earliest in vitamin K deficiency. Q20. A — Zinc deficiency classically causes dermatitis, alopecia, poor wound healing, and infections. Q21. B — Pellagra due to niacin deficiency presents with dermatitis, diarrhea, and dementia. Q22. C — Excess NADH from alcohol metabolism inhibits the TCA cycle and promotes fatty liver. Q23. D — Pyruvate carboxylase is a biotin-dependent enzyme essential for gluconeogenesis. Q24. A — Folate deficiency elevates homocysteine but does not increase methylmalonic acid levels. Q25. C — McArdle disease is due to muscle glycogen phosphorylase deficiency causing exercise intolerance and absent lactate rise. Q26. B — Statins inhibit HMG-CoA reductase, the rate-limiting enzyme in cholesterol synthesis. Q27. D — Homocystinuria with downward lens dislocation is caused by cystathionine β-synthase deficiency. Q28. C — Pyridoxine deficiency increases oxalate production and predisposes to renal stones. Q29. A — Riboflavin deficiency causes angular cheilosis, glossitis, and corneal vascularization. Q30. B — Nitrous oxide oxidizes vitamin B12 and may worsen neurological manifestations of deficiency.	706
3	Answers will be available at 5 pm ✅👇	793
4	Q16. A 50-year-old man presents with severe pain in the first metatarsophalangeal joint. Serum uric acid is elevated. The final product of purine metabolism in humans is: A. Xanthine B. Hypoxanthine C. Allantoin D. Uric acid Q17. A patient receiving total parenteral nutrition develops dermatitis, alopecia, and enteritis. Which vitamin deficiency is most likely responsible? A. Biotin B. Niacin C. Riboflavin D. Folic acid Q18. A child presents with fasting hypoglycemia and reduced ketone body formation. Laboratory evaluation suggests impaired transport of long-chain fatty acids into mitochondria. Which molecule is deficient? A. Coenzyme Q B. Biotin C. Carnitine D. Citrate Q19. A patient with prolonged broad-spectrum antibiotic use develops easy bruising and mucosal bleeding. Which coagulation factor is most likely affected first? A. Factor VIII B. Factor XII C. Factor V D. Factor VII Q20. A 6-month-old infant develops recurrent infections and delayed wound healing. Examination reveals periorificial dermatitis and alopecia. Which trace element deficiency is likely? A. Zinc B. Selenium C. Copper D. Chromium Q21. A patient presents with photosensitive dermatitis, diarrhea, and dementia. Which vitamin deficiency causes this classic triad? A. Riboflavin B. Niacin C. Pyridoxine D. Biotin Q22. A patient with chronic alcohol abuse develops fatty liver due to excess NADH production. Which metabolic pathway is directly inhibited by increased NADH levels? A. Glycolysis B. Pentose phosphate pathway C. TCA cycle D. Glycogenesis Q23. A child develops severe fasting hypoglycemia and hepatomegaly. Blood lactate is elevated and gluconeogenesis is impaired due to deficiency of a biotin-dependent enzyme. Which enzyme is affected? A. Hexokinase B. Phosphofructokinase C. Pyruvate kinase D. Pyruvate carboxylase Q24. A patient with macrocytic anemia has normal methylmalonic acid levels but elevated homocysteine levels. Which vitamin deficiency is most likely? A. Folate B. Vitamin B12 C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin E Q25. A child develops exercise intolerance and painful muscle cramps during strenuous activity. Blood lactate fails to rise after exercise testing. Which disease is most likely? A. Pompe disease B. Cori disease C. McArdle disease D. Von Gierke disease Q26. A patient with severe hypercholesterolemia is started on a statin. Which enzyme is directly inhibited by this drug? A. Acetyl-CoA carboxylase B. HMG-CoA reductase C. Lipoprotein lipase D. Hormone-sensitive lipase Q27. A child develops developmental delay and lens dislocation downward and inward. Plasma homocysteine levels are markedly elevated. Which enzyme deficiency is responsible? A. Cystathionine lyase B. Methionine synthase C. Homogentisate oxidase D. Cystathionine β-synthase Q28. A patient presents with recurrent renal stones and elevated urinary oxalate levels. Which vitamin deficiency predisposes to this condition? A. Vitamin C B. Vitamin D C. Vitamin B6 D. Vitamin K Q29. A patient develops glossitis, cheilosis, and corneal vascularization. Deficiency of which vitamin is most likely responsible? A. Riboflavin B. Niacin C. Pyridoxine D. Folate Q30. A patient with megaloblastic anemia receives nitrous oxide anesthesia and develops worsening neurological symptoms. Which vitamin metabolism is affected? A. Folate B. Vitamin B12 C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin B6	812
5	Q1. A 3-year-old child presents with progressive abdominal distension, hepatomegaly, fasting hypoglycemia, and doll-like facies. Laboratory evaluation shows elevated lactate and uric acid levels. Which enzyme deficiency is most likely responsible for this condition? A. Branching enzyme B. Glucose-6-phosphatase C. Debranching enzyme D. Glycogen synthase Q2. A 22-year-old woman follows a strict vegan diet and develops fatigue, glossitis, and megaloblastic anemia. Serum methylmalonic acid levels are elevated. Which vitamin deficiency is the most likely cause? A. Vitamin B12 B. Folate C. Vitamin B6 D. Niacin Q3. A newborn develops vomiting, jaundice, hepatomegaly, and cataracts after initiation of milk feeds. Urine testing is positive for reducing substances but glucose oxidase test is negative. Which metabolite accumulates in this disorder? A. Fructose-1-phosphate B. Sorbitol C. Galactose-1-phosphate D. Xylulose Q4. A 5-year-old child presents with developmental delay, fair skin, eczema, and a musty odor of urine. Newborn screening was not performed. Which amino acid accumulates in this condition? A. Tyrosine B. Methionine C. Homogentisic acid D. Phenylalanine Q5. A patient with poorly controlled diabetes mellitus develops diabetic ketoacidosis. Which enzyme is primarily responsible for ketone body synthesis in the liver? A. HMG-CoA reductase B. Carnitine acyltransferase I C. HMG-CoA synthase D. Acetyl-CoA carboxylase Q6. A child presents with recurrent episodes of fasting hypoglycemia, muscle weakness, and hepatomegaly. Biopsy reveals deficiency of lysosomal acid maltase. Which disease is most likely? A. Pompe disease B. McArdle disease C. Cori disease D. Andersen disease Q7. A 45-year-old alcoholic develops confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and gait ataxia. Deficiency of which vitamin is responsible for impaired pyruvate dehydrogenase activity in this patient? A. Riboflavin B. Pyridoxine C. Niacin D. Thiamine Q8. A patient treated with isoniazid develops peripheral neuropathy after several months of therapy. Supplementation with which vitamin prevents this complication? A. Vitamin B1 B. Vitamin B6 C. Vitamin B2 D. Vitamin B12 Q9. A child develops hemolytic anemia after taking antimalarial drugs. Peripheral smear shows bite cells and Heinz bodies. Which enzyme deficiency is most likely? A. Pyruvate kinase B. Hexokinase C. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase D. Aldolase B Q10. A patient with chronic kidney disease develops elevated homocysteine levels and accelerated atherosclerosis. Which vitamin deficiency can contribute to hyperhomocysteinemia? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin E C. Vitamin K D. Vitamin B12 Q11. A 30-year-old man develops dark urine after standing for several hours and ochronosis involving the ear cartilage. Which enzyme deficiency is responsible? A. Homogentisate oxidase B. Tyrosine hydroxylase C. Phenylalanine hydroxylase D. Fumarylacetoacetate hydrolase Q12. A newborn develops severe vomiting, lethargy, and hyperammonemia within 48 hours of birth. Orotic acid is elevated in urine without megaloblastic anemia. Which enzyme deficiency is likely? A. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I B. Ornithine transcarbamylase C. Arginase D. Argininosuccinate lyase Q13. A patient with chronic pancreatitis has steatorrhea and deficiency of fat-soluble vitamins. Which vitamin deficiency is most likely to prolong prothrombin time? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin D C. Vitamin E D. Vitamin K Q14. A child develops severe hypoglycemia after consuming fruit juices. Examination reveals hepatomegaly and vomiting. Which enzyme deficiency is responsible? A. Fructokinase B. Aldolase A C. Aldolase B D. Hexokinase Q15. A patient taking methotrexate for rheumatoid arthritis develops megaloblastic changes in bone marrow. Which vitamin supplementation reduces this toxicity? A. Vitamin B12 B. Folinic acid C. Biotin D. Niacin	681
6	Today questions on Biochemistry ✅👇	647
7	🙌	1 075
8	Your score?	1 287
9	ANSWERS WITH EXPLANATIONS Q1. B — Median nerve Median nerve supplies pronator teres and pronator quadratus. Injury causes weakness of pronation with sensory loss over lateral palm and lateral 3½ digits. Q2. A — Spinal accessory nerve Accessory nerve injury causes trapezius paralysis leading to shoulder droop and inability to abduct arm above 90°. Q3. C — Posterior cricoarytenoid It is the only abductor of vocal cords. Recurrent laryngeal nerve injury commonly affects this muscle after thyroid surgery. Q4. D — Serratus anterior Long thoracic nerve injury produces classical winging of scapula, especially when pushing against a wall. Q5. C — Obturator nerve Obturator nerve supplies adductor compartment muscles and provides sensory supply to medial thigh. Q6. A — Hypoglossal nerve Tongue deviates toward the side of lesion due to unopposed action of contralateral genioglossus. Q7. D — Axillary nerve Axillary nerve injury causes impaired abduction from 15°–90° and sensory loss over the regimental badge area. Q8. B — Proper hepatic artery The portal triad in hepatoduodenal ligament consists of bile duct, proper hepatic artery and portal vein. Q9. C — Abducens nerve CN VI runs freely within the cavernous sinus and is therefore most vulnerable in thrombosis. Q10. D — Jugular foramen Spinal accessory nerve exits the skull through the jugular foramen before supplying sternocleidomastoid and trapezius. Q11. A — Inferior alveolar nerve This nerve travels in the mandibular canal and is commonly injured during molar extraction. Q12. B — Umbilical vein Ligamentum teres hepatis is the remnant of the left umbilical vein and participates in caput medusae. Q13. D — Common peroneal nerve It winds around the neck of fibula and injury causes foot drop due to loss of dorsiflexors. Q14. C — Ductus arteriosus Persistence results in patent ductus arteriosus causing left-to-right shunt and continuous murmur. Q15. B — Appendix Taeniae coli converge at the base of appendix but do not continue onto its wall. Q16. D — Radial nerve Midshaft humeral fractures classically injure radial nerve in the spiral groove causing wrist drop. Q17. A — Sciatic nerve Posterior hip dislocation frequently injures the sciatic nerve due to its close relationship to the joint. Q18. C — Esophagus The left atrium lies immediately anterior to the esophagus and enlargement may cause dysphagia. Q19. D — Facial nerve Facial nerve exits through the stylomastoid foramen and traverses the parotid gland. Q20. A — Confluence of sinuses Superior sagittal sinus drains posteriorly into the confluence of sinuses near the internal occipital protuberance. Q21. B — Splenic artery The tortuous splenic artery runs along the superior border of pancreas toward the spleen. Q22. C — Stellate ganglion Apical lung tumors compress the cervicothoracic sympathetic ganglion causing Horner syndrome. Q23. D — Supraspinatus Supraspinatus initiates the first 15° of shoulder abduction and is supplied by suprascapular nerve. Q24. A — Oculomotor nerve Compression causes ipsilateral dilated pupil, ptosis and "down and out" eye position. Q25. C — Epitympanic recess Mastoid antrum communicates with the epitympanic recess, allowing spread of middle ear infections. Q26. B — Femoral artery The arrangement from lateral to medial is NAVEL: Nerve, Artery, Vein, Empty space, Lymphatics. Q27. D — Tibialis posterior Tibialis posterior is the major inverter of the foot and passes behind the medial malleolus. Q28. C — Sphenopalatine artery It is the main arterial supply of posterior nasal cavity and common source of severe epistaxis. Q29. A — Ophthalmic division of trigeminal nerve The afferent limb of corneal reflex travels through nasociliary branch of ophthalmic division (V1). Q30. B — Azygos vein Esophageal varices occur at the anastomosis between left gastric vein and azygos venous system.	1 314
10	Answers will be available at 6pm✅👇	1 113
11	Q15. During appendicectomy, the surgeon identifies the convergence of three taeniae coli to locate the appendix. Which part of large intestine lacks taeniae coli? A. Ascending colon B. Appendix C. Cecum D. Transverse colon Q16. A patient with fracture of the midshaft humerus cannot extend the wrist and fingers. Sensation over the dorsal first web space is also lost. Which nerve is injured? A. Median nerve B. Ulnar nerve C. Axillary nerve D. Radial nerve Q17. Following posterior dislocation of the hip, a patient develops weakness of knee flexion and all movements below the knee except medial leg sensation. Which nerve is affected? A. Sciatic nerve B. Femoral nerve C. Obturator nerve D. Inferior gluteal nerve Q18. A patient with enlarged left atrium due to mitral stenosis develops difficulty swallowing solids. Compression of which structure explains this symptom? A. Trachea B. Left bronchus C. Esophagus D. Thoracic duct Q19. During parotid surgery, a nerve emerging from the stylomastoid foramen is accidentally severed. The patient develops facial asymmetry and inability to close the eye. Which nerve was injured? A. Trigeminal nerve B. Glossopharyngeal nerve C. Vagus nerve D. Facial nerve Q20. A patient with thrombosis of the superior sagittal sinus is investigated for venous drainage of the brain. Into which sinus does it primarily drain posteriorly? A. Confluence of sinuses B. Straight sinus C. Cavernous sinus D. Superior petrosal sinus Q21. A surgeon ligates the artery running along the superior border of pancreas before splenectomy. Which artery is this? A. Superior mesenteric artery B. Splenic artery C. Left gastric artery D. Common hepatic artery Q22. A patient presents with Horner syndrome following an apical lung tumor. Which ganglion is most likely compressed? A. Ciliary ganglion B. Otic ganglion C. Stellate ganglion D. Submandibular ganglion Q23. A patient develops inability to initiate shoulder abduction after injury near the suprascapular notch. Which muscle is primarily affected? A. Deltoid B. Teres minor C. Infraspinatus D. Supraspinatus Q24. A patient with raised intracranial pressure develops a dilated pupil and ptosis due to uncal herniation. Which cranial nerve is compressed first? A. Oculomotor nerve B. Trochlear nerve C. Trigeminal nerve D. Abducens nerve Q25. A child presents with recurrent middle ear infections spreading to the mastoid air cells. The mastoid antrum communicates directly with which structure? A. External auditory canal B. Cochlea C. Epitympanic recess D. Vestibule Q26. During femoral artery catheterization, the needle is inserted just medial to the femoral nerve and lateral to the femoral vein. Which structure lies in between? A. Femoral canal B. Femoral artery C. Great saphenous vein D. Deep femoral vein Q27. A patient develops inability to invert the foot after trauma behind the medial malleolus. Which tendon is most likely damaged? A. Flexor hallucis longus B. Flexor digitorum longus C. Tibialis anterior D. Tibialis posterior Q28. A patient develops severe epistaxis from the posterior part of the nasal cavity. Which artery commonly contributes to this region? A. Facial artery B. Greater palatine artery C. Sphenopalatine artery D. Superior labial artery Q29. A patient with lesion of the cerebellopontine angle develops loss of corneal reflex due to involvement of the sensory limb. Which nerve carries this afferent pathway? A. Ophthalmic division of trigeminal nerve B. Facial nerve C. Maxillary nerve D. Glossopharyngeal nerve Q30. A patient develops hematemesis due to rupture of esophageal varices in portal hypertension. Which vein is involved in systemic drainage at this site? A. Inferior vena cava B. Azygos vein C. Portal vein D. Left gastric vein	1 227
12	Q1. A 32-year-old man develops weakness in forearm pronation after a supracondylar fracture of the humerus. On examination, he is unable to perform resisted pronation effectively but wrist flexion is preserved. Sensory loss is noted over the lateral palm and lateral three-and-a-half digits. Which nerve is most likely injured? A. Ulnar nerve B. Median nerve C. Radial nerve D. Musculocutaneous nerve Q2. A patient presents with inability to abduct the arm beyond 15° after radical neck dissection. Clinical examination reveals shoulder drooping and difficulty shrugging the shoulder against resistance. Which structure was most likely damaged during surgery? A. Spinal accessory nerve B. Long thoracic nerve C. Axillary nerve D. Suprascapular nerve Q3. A 45-year-old woman develops hoarseness following thyroid surgery. Laryngoscopy shows inability of the vocal cord to abduct during inspiration. Which muscle is paralyzed in this patient? A. Cricothyroid B. Thyroarytenoid C. Posterior cricoarytenoid D. Lateral cricoarytenoid Q4. A patient suffers penetrating trauma to the axilla and later develops winging of the scapula while pushing against a wall. Which muscle is primarily affected? A. Trapezius B. Rhomboid major C. Levator scapulae D. Serratus anterior Q5. A 50-year-old man develops weakness in adduction of the thigh after pelvic surgery. He also has sensory loss over the medial aspect of the thigh. Which nerve is injured? A. Femoral nerve B. Sciatic nerve C. Obturator nerve D. Superior gluteal nerve Q6. A patient is unable to protrude his tongue toward the right side following carotid endarterectomy. Examination reveals wasting of the right half of the tongue. Which nerve is involved? A. Hypoglossal nerve B. Glossopharyngeal nerve C. Vagus nerve D. Facial nerve Q7. A man presents after fracture of the surgical neck of humerus. He cannot abduct the arm between 15° and 90°, and there is loss of sensation over the regimental badge area. Which nerve is injured? A. Radial nerve B. Musculocutaneous nerve C. Median nerve D. Axillary nerve Q8. During laparoscopic cholecystectomy, a surgeon identifies a vessel running within the hepatoduodenal ligament anterior to the portal vein and medial to the bile duct. Which structure is it? A. Common hepatic artery B. Proper hepatic artery C. Right gastric artery D. Cystic artery Q9. A patient with cavernous sinus thrombosis develops inability to abduct the eye. Which cranial nerve is most vulnerable due to its position within the sinus? A. Oculomotor nerve B. Trochlear nerve C. Abducens nerve D. Ophthalmic nerve Q10. A 28-year-old woman undergoes mastectomy with axillary clearance. Postoperatively she cannot raise her arm above shoulder level due to injury to a nerve supplying trapezius. Which foramen transmits this nerve out of the skull? A. Jugular canal B. Foramen ovale C. Stylomastoid foramen D. Jugular foramen Q11. A patient develops numbness over the lower lip and chin after extraction of an impacted mandibular third molar. Which nerve was likely injured? A. Inferior alveolar nerve B. Lingual nerve C. Buccal nerve D. Auriculotemporal nerve Q12. A patient with portal hypertension develops dilated veins around the umbilicus. Which embryological structure forms the ligament associated with this portosystemic anastomosis? A. Ductus venosus B. Umbilical vein C. Vitelline duct D. Umbilical artery Q13. A patient presents with inability to dorsiflex the foot following injury near the neck of fibula. Examination reveals foot drop with steppage gait. Which nerve is damaged? A. Tibial nerve B. Sural nerve C. Saphenous nerve D. Common peroneal nerve Q14. A child presents with cyanosis due to persistence of communication between ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk after birth. Which fetal structure failed to close? A. Foramen ovale B. Ductus venosus C. Ductus arteriosus D. Sinus venosus	1 267
13	Today questions on Anatomy ✅👇	1 359
14	New Questions series starting Tomorrow onwards ✅👍	1 836
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16	Focus on your mission brother Because after 5 years later, no one will ask how many girlfriend you had Rather, they'll ask how much you earn.	2 978
17	Your score?	3 076
18	Q1. B — Silvery scales and Auspitz sign (pinpoint bleeding) are classical features of psoriasis vulgaris. Q2. A — Vitiligo presents as sharply demarcated depigmented patches that accentuate under Wood's lamp. Q3. C — Nocturnal pruritus with involvement of family members is highly suggestive of scabies. Q4. D — Painful unilateral dermatomal vesicles that do not cross the midline indicate herpes zoster. Q5. C — Annular lesions with central clearing and KOH-positive hyphae confirm tinea corporis. Q6. A — Hypopigmented anesthetic patches with thickened nerves are diagnostic of Hansen disease. Q7. D — The 6 Ps and Wickham striae are characteristic of lichen planus. Q8. B — Topical retinoids are first-line therapy for mild comedonal and inflammatory acne. Q9. C — Photosensitivity, malar rash, and positive ANA suggest systemic lupus erythematosus. Q10. D — Epidermal detachment involving >30% BSA is diagnostic of toxic epidermal necrolysis. Q11. A — Basal cell carcinoma presents as a pearly papule with telangiectasia and rarely metastasizes. Q12. B — Honey-colored crusts are classic for impetigo contagiosa, usually due to Staphylococcus aureus. Q13. D — Flaccid bullae with oral involvement and positive Nikolsky sign indicate pemphigus vulgaris. Q14. C — "Spaghetti and meatballs" appearance on KOH is characteristic of pityriasis versicolor. Q15. B — Tense bullae with mucosal sparing and negative Nikolsky sign suggest bullous pemphigoid. Q16. D — Target lesions, often following HSV infection, are typical of erythema multiforme. Q17. A — Vitiligo commonly associates with autoimmune disorders like thyroid disease. Q18. C — Urticaria presents as transient itchy wheals lasting less than 24 hours. Q19. D — Tender erythematous nodules over shins are characteristic of erythema nodosum. Q20. A — Alopecia areata causes smooth, non-scarring patchy hair loss. Q21. B — Allergic contact dermatitis is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction diagnosed by patch testing. Q22. C — Dermatitis herpetiformis is strongly associated with celiac disease. Q23. D — Erysipelas causes sharply demarcated erythematous plaques with raised borders. Q24. A — Butterfly rash sparing nasolabial folds is a classic feature of SLE. Q25. C — Violaceous flat-topped papules with saw-tooth infiltrate indicate lichen planus. Q26. B — Nits attached to hair shafts are diagnostic of pediculosis capitis. Q27. D — Stevens-Johnson syndrome involves mucosal erosions with <30% BSA involvement. Q28. C — Greasy scales over seborrheic areas are typical of seborrheic dermatitis. Q29. A — Sensory loss, thickened nerves, and AFB positivity confirm leprosy. Q30. B — Flexural eczema with personal or family history of atopy suggests atopic dermatitis.	3 068
19	Answers will be available at 5 pm today ✅👇	2 087
20	Q17. A 30-year-old man presents with sharply demarcated depigmented patches associated with autoimmune thyroid disease. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Vitiligo B. Albinism C. Tinea versicolor D. Pityriasis alba Q18. A 25-year-old woman complains of recurrent transient itchy wheals over the body that disappear within 24 hours. What is the diagnosis? A. Eczema B. Contact dermatitis C. Urticaria D. Psoriasis Q19. A patient presents with painful erythematous nodules over the anterior aspect of legs. The lesions are tender and associated with fever. What is the diagnosis? A. Erythema multiforme B. Vasculitis C. Cellulitis D. Erythema nodosum Q20. A 15-year-old boy presents with patchy hair loss over the scalp. The lesions are smooth and non-scarring. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Alopecia areata B. Tinea capitis C. Trichotillomania D. Androgenetic alopecia Q21. A 50-year-old woman develops itchy lesions confined to areas exposed to nickel jewelry. Patch testing is planned. What is the diagnosis? A. Irritant contact dermatitis B. Allergic contact dermatitis C. Atopic dermatitis D. Seborrheic dermatitis Q22. A patient with celiac disease presents with grouped pruritic vesicles over the elbows and knees. What is the diagnosis? A. Pemphigus vulgaris B. Bullous pemphigoid C. Dermatitis herpetiformis D. Linear IgA disease Q23. A young adult presents with fever and rapidly spreading painful erythematous swelling of the leg with raised borders. What is the diagnosis? A. Cellulitis B. Impetigo C. Necrotizing fasciitis D. Erysipelas Q24. A 45-year-old woman presents with butterfly rash over the face sparing the nasolabial folds. She also complains of joint pains. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. Rosacea C. Seborrheic dermatitis D. Dermatomyositis Q25. A patient presents with multiple itchy violaceous flat-topped papules over wrists. Histology reveals saw-tooth lymphocytic infiltrate. What is the diagnosis? A. Psoriasis B. Pityriasis rosea C. Lichen planus D. Eczema Q26. A 3-year-old child presents with intensely pruritic papulovesicular lesions over the scalp. Nits are seen attached to hair shafts. What is the diagnosis? A. Scabies B. Pediculosis capitis C. Impetigo D. Tinea capitis Q27. A patient on carbamazepine develops fever, mucosal erosions, and epidermal detachment involving 15% BSA. What is the diagnosis? A. TEN B. Pemphigus vulgaris C. Bullous pemphigoid D. Stevens-Johnson syndrome Q28. A middle-aged man presents with greasy scales over the scalp and nasolabial folds. Symptoms worsen during stress. What is the diagnosis? A. Psoriasis B. Atopic dermatitis C. Seborrheic dermatitis D. Tinea faciei Q29. A patient presents with decreased sensation over skin lesions and thickened ulnar nerve. Slit-skin smear reveals acid-fast bacilli. What is the diagnosis? A. Leprosy B. Vitiligo C. Psoriasis D. Tinea corporis Q30. A 32-year-old woman presents with itchy flexural eczema associated with a history of asthma since childhood. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Contact dermatitis B. Atopic dermatitis C. Seborrheic dermatitis D. Psoriasis	2 349

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