现已上线！2025 年 Telegram 研究 — 年度关键洞察 
NEETPG, INICET, FMGE PYT
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📈 Telegram 频道 NEETPG, INICET, FMGE PYT 的分析概览
频道 NEETPG, INICET, FMGE PYT (@neetpg_pyt) 英语 语言赛道中的 是活跃参与者。目前社区聚集了 21 181 名订阅者，在 医学 类别中位列第 1 072，并在 印度 地区排名第 20 351 位。
📊 受众指标与增长动态
自 невідомо 创建以来，项目保持高速增长，吸引了 21 181 名订阅者。
根据 23 六月, 2026 的最新数据，频道保持稳定运转。过去 30 天订阅人数变化为 887，过去 24 小时变化为 34，整体触达仍然可观。
- 认证状态： 未认证
- 互动率 (ER)： 平均受众互动率为 7.04%。内容发布后 24 小时内通常能获得 4.27% 的反应，占订阅者总量。
- 帖子覆盖： 每篇帖子平均可获得 1 487 次浏览，首日通常累积 901 次浏览。
- 互动与反馈： 受众积极参与，单帖平均反应数为 4。
- 主题关注点： 内容集中在 patient, nerve, deficiency, present, disease 等核心主题上。
📝 描述与内容策略
作者将该频道定位为表达主观观点的平台：
“PRIMIUM CONTENT ✨
- Any query contact- @Drconcept”
凭借高频更新（最新数据采集于 24 六月, 2026），频道始终保持新鲜度与高覆盖。分析显示受众积极互动，使其成为 医学 类别中的关键影响点。
21 181
订阅者
+3424 小时
+667 天
+88730 天
数据加载中...
吸引订阅者
六月 '26
六月 '26
+684
在10个频道中
五月 '26
+711
在0个频道中
Get PRO
四月 '26
+1 265
在18个频道中
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三月 '26
+725
在0个频道中
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二月 '26
+1 040
在2个频道中
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一月 '26
+1 109
在3个频道中
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十二月 '25
+767
在0个频道中
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十一月 '25
+392
在0个频道中
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十月 '25
+582
在2个频道中
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九月 '25
+1 489
在18个频道中
Get PRO
八月 '25
+12 521
在23个频道中
| 日期 | 订阅者增长 | 提及 | 频道 | |
| 24 六月 | +64 | |||
| 23 六月 | +34 | |||
| 22 六月 | +7 | |||
| 21 六月 | +2 | |||
| 20 六月 | +2 | |||
| 19 六月 | +10 | |||
| 18 六月 | +3 | |||
| 17 六月 | +9 | |||
| 16 六月 | +44 | |||
| 15 六月 | +49 | |||
| 14 六月 | +75 | |||
| 13 六月 | +165 | |||
| 12 六月 | +14 | |||
| 11 六月 | +28 | |||
| 10 六月 | +10 | |||
| 09 六月 | +36 | |||
| 08 六月 | +14 | |||
| 07 六月 | +14 | |||
| 06 六月 | +14 | |||
| 05 六月 | +17 | |||
| 04 六月 | +17 | |||
| 03 六月 | +12 | |||
| 02 六月 | +23 | |||
| 01 六月 | +21 |
频道帖子
Healing isn't a race - take all the time your heart needs to find it's rhythm again.
| 2 | Your score? | 1 134 |
| 3 | Q1. B — Magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice for prevention and treatment of eclamptic seizures. It is superior to diazepam and phenytoin.
Q2. A — Müllerian agenesis (MRKH syndrome) presents with primary amenorrhea, normal secondary sexual characters, and absent uterus with 46,XX karyotype.
Q3. C — Endometriosis classically presents with infertility, dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, and endometrioma showing ground-glass appearance on USG.
Q4. D — Painless antepartum hemorrhage with a relaxed uterus is characteristic of placenta previa.
Q5. C — Positive pregnancy test with adnexal mass and absent intrauterine sac strongly suggests ectopic pregnancy.
Q6. A — Fertility-preserving management of symptomatic submucosal fibroid is hysteroscopic myomectomy.
Q7. D — Cord prolapse presents after membrane rupture with fetal bradycardia and palpable cord below presenting part.
Q8. B — PID is treated empirically with ceftriaxone plus doxycycline to cover gonococcal and chlamydial infection.
Q9. C — Hyperprolactinemia with amenorrhea and galactorrhea is most commonly due to prolactinoma.
Q10. D — Convulsions in a woman with preeclampsia indicate eclampsia.
Q11. A — Abnormal uterine bleeding with thickened endometrium requires endometrial biopsy to exclude malignancy.
Q12. B — Bilateral tubal block is best managed with IVF-ET since natural conception is unlikely.
Q13. D — Sudden pain, cessation of contractions, and fetal demise during labor indicate uterine rupture.
Q14. C — PCOS is characterized by hyperandrogenism, oligo-ovulation, and polycystic ovaries.
Q15. B — CA-125 is the most commonly used tumor marker for epithelial ovarian cancer.
Q16. D — Painful bleeding with a tender hypertonic uterus is classic for abruptio placentae.
Q17. A — HPV DNA testing is now preferred as a primary screening modality for cervical cancer.
Q18. C — A positive progesterone challenge test indicates adequate estrogen production and a patent outflow tract.
Q19. D — Obstructed labor with impacted head requires cesarean section to prevent maternal and fetal complications.
Q20. A — Chocolate cysts of ovaries are pathognomonic of endometriosis.
Q21. A — Rh-negative mothers delivering Rh-positive babies should receive Anti-D immunoglobulin within 72 hours.
Q22. C — Bleeding with a closed cervix and viable fetus defines threatened abortion.
Q23. D — Easily palpable fetal parts with maternal shock during labor strongly suggest uterine rupture.
Q24. A — Endometrial glands within the myometrium define adenomyosis.
Q25. C — Strawberry cervix is characteristic of Trichomonas vaginalis infection.
Q26. B — AMH is the most reliable marker of ovarian reserve and predicts ovarian response.
Q27. D — Severe hypertension with IUFD and systemic involvement indicates severe preeclampsia.
Q28. C — Enlarged boggy uterus with cyclical pain and menorrhagia is typical of adenomyosis.
Q29. A — Postmenopausal bleeding with thickened endometrium mandates endometrial biopsy.
Q30. B — Breech in labor with fetal distress is an indication for emergency cesarean section. | 1 206 |
| 4 | Answers will be available at 5 pm ✅👇 | 1 235 |
| 5 | Q15. A 50-year-old postmenopausal woman presents with abdominal distension and weight loss. Ultrasound reveals a complex ovarian mass with ascites.
What tumor marker is most useful?
A. AFP
B. CA-125
C. β-hCG
D. LDH
Q16. A 32-year-old woman at 36 weeks gestation presents with painful vaginal bleeding and a tender, hypertonic uterus.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Placenta previa
B. Vasa previa
C. Uterine rupture
D. Abruptio placentae
Q17. A 23-year-old sexually active woman presents for cervical cancer screening. She has no risk factors and previous screening was never done.
What is the preferred screening test?
A. HPV DNA testing
B. Colposcopy
C. Cervical biopsy
D. Endometrial sampling
Q18. A 27-year-old woman presents with secondary amenorrhea for 8 months. Pregnancy test is negative and progesterone challenge test is positive.
What does this indicate?
A. Outflow tract obstruction
B. Ovarian failure
C. Adequate estrogen with patent outflow tract
D. Hypothalamic amenorrhea
Q19. A primigravida at 39 weeks gestation has prolonged labor with obstructed descent despite adequate contractions. The fetal head is deeply impacted.
What is the best management?
A. Vacuum delivery
B. Forceps delivery
C. Symphysiotomy
D. Cesarean section
Q20. A 30-year-old woman presents with severe dysmenorrhea and infertility. Laparoscopy reveals chocolate cysts over both ovaries.
What is the diagnosis?
A. Endometriosis
B. Adenomyosis
C. PID
D. Dermoid cyst
Q21. A 25-year-old Rh-negative woman delivers an Rh-positive baby. Indirect Coombs test is negative.
What should be administered postpartum?
A. Anti-D immunoglobulin
B. Packed RBC transfusion
C. IVIG
D. Steroids
Q22. A 28-year-old woman at 12 weeks gestation presents with vaginal bleeding. Cervix is closed and ultrasound shows a viable fetus.
What is the diagnosis?
A. Inevitable abortion
B. Missed abortion
C. Threatened abortion
D. Incomplete abortion
Q23. A 31-year-old multipara presents with sudden onset severe abdominal pain during labor. She becomes hypotensive and fetal parts are easily palpable abdominally.
What is the diagnosis?
A. Abruptio placentae
B. Cord prolapse
C. Placenta previa
D. Uterine rupture
Q24. A 40-year-old woman presents with heavy menstrual bleeding and enlarged uniformly tender uterus. Histopathology confirms endometrial glands within myometrium.
What is the diagnosis?
A. Adenomyosis
B. Leiomyoma
C. Endometrial hyperplasia
D. Endometriosis
Q25. A 26-year-old woman presents with foul-smelling vaginal discharge and strawberry cervix on examination.
What is the causative organism?
A. Candida albicans
B. Gardnerella vaginalis
C. Trichomonas vaginalis
D. Chlamydia trachomatis
Q26. A woman with infertility undergoes ovarian reserve testing. Which marker best reflects ovarian reserve?
A. FSH
B. Anti-Müllerian hormone
C. Estradiol
D. LH
Q27. A 36-year-old woman at 30 weeks gestation presents with generalized edema, BP 170/110 mmHg, and absent fetal movements. Ultrasound confirms IUFD.
What is the diagnosis?
A. Gestational hypertension
B. Chronic hypertension
C. Mild preeclampsia
D. Severe preeclampsia
Q28. A 28-year-old woman presents with cyclical pelvic pain and enlarged boggy uterus. Menorrhagia is present.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Fibroid uterus
B. Endometriosis
C. Adenomyosis
D. PID
Q29. A postmenopausal woman presents with bleeding per vaginum. TVS shows endometrial thickness of 12 mm.
What is the next best step?
A. Endometrial biopsy
B. Observation
C. Hormonal therapy
D. Repeat TVS after 1 year
Q30. A 24-year-old primigravida at 39 weeks gestation presents with breech presentation in active labor. The cervix is fully dilated and fetal distress develops.
What is the most appropriate management?
A. External cephalic version
B. Emergency cesarean section
C. Await vaginal delivery
D. Tocolysis | 1 342 |
| 6 | Q1. A 28-year-old primigravida at 32 weeks gestation presents with blood pressure of 160/110 mmHg and proteinuria (+++). She complains of headache and blurring of vision. Fetal movements are present and NST is reactive. There is no history of seizures.
What is the drug of choice for seizure prophylaxis?
A. Diazepam
B. Magnesium sulfate
C. Phenytoin
D. Levetiracetam
Q2. A 22-year-old woman presents with primary amenorrhea. She has normal breast development but absent uterus on ultrasound. Karyotyping reveals 46,XX. External genitalia are normal.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Müllerian agenesis syndrome
B. Turner syndrome
C. Androgen insensitivity syndrome
D. Gonadal dysgenesis
Q3. A 30-year-old woman presents with infertility for 2 years. She reports dysmenorrhea and deep dyspareunia. Pelvic examination reveals nodularity in the pouch of Douglas. Ultrasound shows ovarian cyst with ground-glass appearance.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. PID
B. Fibroid uterus
C. Endometriosis
D. Ovarian malignancy
Q4. A 35-year-old multiparous woman presents with painless vaginal bleeding at 34 weeks gestation. Uterus is relaxed and non-tender. Fetal heart sounds are normal.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Abruptio placentae
B. Vasa previa
C. Uterine rupture
D. Placenta previa
Q5. A 24-year-old woman presents with acute lower abdominal pain and amenorrhea of 7 weeks. Urine pregnancy test is positive. Ultrasound shows an adnexal mass with no intrauterine gestational sac.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Threatened abortion
B. Corpus luteum cyst
C. Ectopic pregnancy
D. Molar pregnancy
Q6. A 26-year-old woman presents with excessive menstrual bleeding for 8 months. Ultrasound reveals a submucosal fibroid measuring 3 cm. She desires future fertility.
What is the preferred treatment?
A. Hysteroscopic myomectomy
B. Hysterectomy
C. Uterine artery embolization
D. Endometrial ablation
Q7. A 30-year-old woman in labor suddenly develops fetal bradycardia after spontaneous rupture of membranes. On vaginal examination, a pulsating loop is felt below the presenting part.
What is the diagnosis?
A. Cord presentation
B. Placental abruption
C. Uterine rupture
D. Cord prolapse
Q8. A 19-year-old woman presents with lower abdominal pain and mucopurulent cervical discharge. Cervical motion tenderness is present on examination.
What is the first-line treatment?
A. Oral metronidazole alone
B. Ceftriaxone with doxycycline
C. Antifungal therapy
D. Observation only
Q9. A 32-year-old woman presents with galactorrhea and amenorrhea for 6 months. Pregnancy test is negative. Serum prolactin levels are elevated.
What is the most likely cause?
A. Hypothyroidism
B. PCOS
C. Prolactinoma
D. Premature ovarian failure
Q10. A 24-year-old primigravida at 38 weeks gestation presents with convulsions. Blood pressure is 170/110 mmHg and proteinuria is present.
What is the diagnosis?
A. Epilepsy
B. Cerebral malaria
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Eclampsia
Q11. A 45-year-old woman presents with intermenstrual bleeding. Endometrial thickness is 14 mm on transvaginal ultrasound.
What is the next best step in management?
A. Endometrial biopsy
B. Observation
C. Oral contraceptive pills
D. Repeat ultrasound after 6 months
Q12. A 28-year-old woman presents with infertility for 3 years. Ovulation studies are normal. HSG reveals bilateral tubal block.
What is the most appropriate management?
A. Ovulation induction
B. IVF-ET
C. Intrauterine insemination
D. Expectant management
Q13. A 34-year-old G3P2 woman in labor suddenly develops severe abdominal pain followed by cessation of uterine contractions. Fetal heart sounds become absent.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Placenta previa
B. Abruptio placentae
C. Cord prolapse
D. Uterine rupture
Q14. A 29-year-old woman presents with irregular menstrual cycles, obesity, and hirsutism. Ultrasound shows enlarged ovaries with multiple peripheral follicles.
What is the diagnosis?
A. Cushing syndrome
B. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
C. Polycystic ovarian syndrome
D. Hyperprolactinemia | 1 333 |
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| 8 |  ✅NMC ANNOUNCEMENT
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| 12 | Your score? | 1 709 |
| 13 | Q1. B — Acute pancreatitis without complications is initially managed conservatively with aggressive IV fluids, analgesia, and monitoring.
Q2. A — Follicular neoplasm on FNAC cannot distinguish adenoma from carcinoma; hemithyroidectomy is diagnostic and therapeutic.
Q3. C — Contrast-enhanced CT is essential for local and distant staging of esophageal carcinoma.
Q4. D — Appendicular abscess in stable patients is treated conservatively followed by interval appendicectomy.
Q5. C — Symptomatic gallstones are best managed with laparoscopic cholecystectomy.
Q6. A — Neuropathic ulcers are painless with sensory loss and preserved pulses, commonly seen in diabetes.
Q7. D — Previous abdominal surgery strongly suggests adhesive intestinal obstruction.
Q8. B — Anorectal abscess requires incision and drainage; antibiotics alone are inadequate.
Q9. C — Courvoisier sign is painless jaundice with palpable gallbladder, often due to pancreatic cancer.
Q10. D — Hemodynamically unstable trauma patients with free fluid require emergency laparotomy.
Q11. A — Mobile, painless breast lump in a young woman is classically fibroadenoma.
Q12. B — CT abdomen and pelvis is essential for staging colorectal cancer and detecting metastasis.
Q13. D — Boerhaave syndrome is spontaneous esophageal rupture following forceful vomiting.
Q14. C — A hot thyroid nodule causing hyperthyroidism is most commonly a toxic adenoma.
Q15. B — Serum PSA is an important initial evaluation in suspected prostatic disease.
Q16. D — Acute limb ischemia presents with pain, pallor, pulselessness, and cold extremity.
Q17. A — Thyroglossal cyst is a midline neck swelling moving with tongue protrusion.
Q18. C — Squamous cell carcinoma is the most common malignancy of the larynx.
Q19. D — Elevated lactate with infection and hypotension suggests septic shock.
Q20. A — Pilonidal sinus causes recurrent painful discharge from the natal cleft.
Q21. B — Barrett esophagus predisposes to esophageal adenocarcinoma.
Q22. C — Posterior midline painful tear with bleeding is characteristic of fissure in ano.
Q23. D — Free air under diaphragm indicates perforation of a hollow viscus.
Q24. A — Compressive multinodular goiter requires surgical removal by thyroidectomy.
Q25. C — Esophageal varices develop due to portal hypertension.
Q26. B — Painless hematuria with renal mass is classic for renal cell carcinoma.
Q27. D — Sudden scrotal pain with absent cremasteric reflex indicates testicular torsion.
Q28. C — Toxic megacolon is a life-threatening complication of ulcerative colitis.
Q29. A — Surgical excision is the definitive treatment for parathyroid adenoma.
Q30. B — Skip lesions with transmural inflammation are hallmarks of Crohn disease. | 1 622 |
| 14 | In case there’s a communication block on telegram
join WhatsApp Group 👇 https://whatsapp.com/channel/0029Va6AT0Y2v1IqAGrRiU2W | 1 426 |
| 15 | Answers will be available at 5 pm today ✅👇 | 1 525 |
| 16 | Q30. A patient presents with recurrent right lower quadrant pain and chronic diarrhea. Colonoscopy reveals skip lesions and transmural inflammation.
What is the diagnosis?
A. Ulcerative colitis
B. Crohn disease
C. Irritable bowel syndrome
D. Intestinal tuberculosis | 1 544 |
| 17 | Q13. A 48-year-old man presents with sudden severe chest pain radiating to the back after repeated vomiting. Chest X-ray shows pleural effusion and mediastinal air.
What is the likely diagnosis?
A. Peptic ulcer perforation
B. Aortic dissection
C. Mallory-Weiss tear
D. Boerhaave syndrome
Q14. A 42-year-old woman presents with neck swelling and symptoms of hyperthyroidism. Thyroid scan reveals a single hot nodule.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Hashimoto thyroiditis
B. Multinodular goiter
C. Toxic adenoma
D. Papillary carcinoma
Q15. A 70-year-old man presents with urinary retention and lower urinary tract symptoms. DRE reveals a smooth enlarged prostate.
What is the initial investigation?
A. MRI pelvis
B. Serum PSA
C. Prostate biopsy
D. Cystoscopy
Q16. A patient presents with severe pain out of proportion to examination findings after arterial occlusion. The limb is cold with absent pulses.
What is the diagnosis?
A. Deep vein thrombosis
B. Cellulitis
C. Chronic ischemia
D. Acute limb ischemia
Q17. A 25-year-old woman presents with a painless midline neck swelling that moves with tongue protrusion. There is no lymphadenopathy.
What is the diagnosis?
A. Thyroglossal cyst
B. Branchial cyst
C. Dermoid cyst
D. Lymph node enlargement
Q18. A 62-year-old chronic smoker presents with hoarseness of voice for 4 months. Laryngoscopy reveals a lesion over the vocal cord.
What is the most common histological type?
A. Adenocarcinoma
B. Small cell carcinoma
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D. Lymphoma
Q19. A patient develops fever, tachycardia, and hypotension after surgery. Blood cultures are positive and serum lactate is elevated.
What is the diagnosis?
A. Neurogenic shock
B. Cardiogenic shock
C. Hypovolemic shock
D. Septic shock
Q20. A 35-year-old man presents with painful swelling in the natal cleft with purulent discharge. Similar episodes occurred previously.
What is the diagnosis?
A. Pilonidal sinus
B. Fistula-in-ano
C. Hemorrhoids
D. Perianal abscess
Q21. A 50-year-old man with chronic GERD develops progressive dysphagia. Endoscopy reveals Barrett esophagus with dysplasia.
What malignancy is commonly associated?
A. Squamous carcinoma
B. Adenocarcinoma
C. Small cell carcinoma
D. Lymphoma
Q22. A 40-year-old patient presents with severe anal pain during defecation and streaks of blood on stool. Examination shows a posterior midline tear.
What is the diagnosis?
A. Hemorrhoids
B. Rectal prolapse
C. Fissure in ano
D. Fistula in ano
Q23. A 65-year-old man presents with sudden severe abdominal pain. X-ray shows free air under diaphragm.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute pancreatitis
B. Appendicitis
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Hollow viscus perforation
Q24. A patient with multinodular goiter develops stridor and dyspnea due to tracheal compression.
What is the treatment of choice?
A. Total thyroidectomy
B. Observation
C. Radioiodine alone
D. Steroids only
Q25. A 45-year-old alcoholic presents with hematemesis. Endoscopy reveals dilated esophageal veins.
Which condition is responsible?
A. Gastric ulcer
B. Mallory-Weiss tear
C. Portal hypertension
D. Gastritis
Q26. A patient presents with painless hematuria and weight loss. Imaging reveals a renal mass.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Renal stone
B. Renal cell carcinoma
C. Pyelonephritis
D. Ureteric stricture
Q27. A young man develops severe scrotal pain of sudden onset during exercise. Testis is high-riding and absent cremasteric reflex.
What is the diagnosis?
A. Epididymitis
B. Hydrocele
C. Varicocele
D. Testicular torsion
Q28. A patient with long-standing ulcerative colitis develops abdominal pain and colonic dilatation.
What complication is likely?
A. Stricture
B. Fistula
C. Toxic megacolon
D. Diverticulosis
Q29. A 55-year-old woman presents with primary hyperparathyroidism and elevated serum calcium. Imaging localizes a parathyroid adenoma.
What is definitive treatment?
A. Parathyroidectomy
B. Bisphosphonates
C. Observation
D. Steroids | 1 435 |
| 18 | Q1. A 45-year-old man presents with severe epigastric pain radiating to the back for 12 hours. He has vomiting and abdominal distension. On examination, pulse is 110/min and abdomen is tender in the upper region. Serum amylase is elevated three times above normal. CT scan shows pancreatic edema without necrosis.
What is the most appropriate initial management?
A. Emergency laparotomy
B. Aggressive IV fluids and supportive care
C. ERCP immediately
D. Distal pancreatectomy
Q2. A 52-year-old woman presents with a gradually enlarging thyroid swelling for 5 years. FNAC suggests follicular neoplasm. There is no lymphadenopathy or vocal cord palsy. Thyroid function tests are normal. She is anxious regarding malignancy.
What is the best next step in management?
A. Hemithyroidectomy
B. Radioiodine therapy
C. Observation only
D. Repeat FNAC
Q3. A 60-year-old smoker presents with progressive dysphagia, initially to solids and now to liquids. He has lost 8 kg in 3 months. Upper GI endoscopy reveals an ulceroproliferative lesion in the middle esophagus.
Which investigation is most important for staging?
A. Barium swallow
B. Chest X-ray
C. Contrast-enhanced CT scan
D. PET only
Q4. A 28-year-old man presents with severe right iliac fossa pain and fever. Examination shows guarding and rebound tenderness. Ultrasound suggests perforated appendicitis with localized abscess formation. He is hemodynamically stable.
What is the preferred management?
A. Immediate colonoscopy
B. Oral antibiotics only
C. Observation without treatment
D. IV antibiotics with interval appendicectomy
Q5. A 40-year-old woman presents with recurrent episodes of right upper quadrant pain after fatty meals. Ultrasound reveals multiple gallstones without evidence of cholecystitis. Liver function tests are normal.
What is the treatment of choice?
A. ERCP
B. Open cholecystectomy
C. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy
D. Observation indefinitely
Q6. A 65-year-old diabetic patient develops a non-healing ulcer over the foot. The ulcer is painless with punched-out edges and loss of sensation. Peripheral pulses are palpable.
What is the likely type of ulcer?
A. Neuropathic ulcer
B. Venous ulcer
C. Arterial ulcer
D. Malignant ulcer
Q7. A 55-year-old man presents with abdominal distension, vomiting, and inability to pass flatus. X-ray abdomen shows multiple air-fluid levels and dilated bowel loops. He had previous abdominal surgery 3 years ago.
What is the most likely cause?
A. Intussusception
B. Hernia
C. Volvulus
D. Adhesive intestinal obstruction
Q8. A 30-year-old male develops severe pain and swelling around the anus with fever for 2 days. Examination reveals a tender fluctuant swelling near the anal verge.
What is the treatment of choice?
A. Sitz bath only
B. Incision and drainage
C. Antibiotics alone
D. Hemorrhoidectomy
Q9. A 50-year-old man presents with painless progressive jaundice and weight loss. Examination reveals a palpable gallbladder. CT scan shows a mass in the head of pancreas.
Which sign is demonstrated here?
A. Murphy sign
B. Grey Turner sign
C. Courvoisier sign
D. Cullen sign
Q10. A 24-year-old man presents after blunt abdominal trauma following a road accident. He is hypotensive with abdominal tenderness and guarding. FAST examination shows free intraperitoneal fluid.
What is the next best step?
A. CT scan with contrast
B. Observation
C. Diagnostic laparoscopy
D. Emergency laparotomy
Q11. A 35-year-old woman presents with a solitary breast lump measuring 2 cm. The lump is mobile, firm, and painless. Triple assessment suggests fibroadenoma.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Fibroadenoma
B. Phyllodes tumor
C. Fibrocystic disease
D. Carcinoma breast
Q12. A 58-year-old man presents with altered bowel habits and occult blood loss. Colonoscopy reveals a sigmoid colon growth. Biopsy confirms adenocarcinoma.
Which investigation is essential for staging?
A. Ultrasound abdomen
B. Contrast-enhanced CT abdomen and pelvis
C. Barium enema
D. Plain X-ray abdomen | 1 229 |
| 19 | Today Questions on Surgery ✅👇 | 1 181 |
| 20 | Tomorrow onwards New Questions series will Start ✅ | 1 587 |
