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📈 Аналитический обзор Telegram-канала NEETPG, INICET, FMGE PYT

Канал NEETPG, INICET, FMGE PYT (@neetpg_pyt) языкового сегмента Английский является активным участником. Сейчас сообщество объединяет 21 829 подписчиков, занимая 1 032 место в категории Медицина и 19 375 место в регионе Индия.

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С момента создания невідомо проект демонстрирует стремительный рост, собрав аудиторию из 21 829 подписчиков.

Согласно последним данным от 19 июля, 2026, канал показывает стабильную активность. За последние 30 дней изменение числа участников составило 734, а за последние 24 часа — 26, при этом общий охват остаётся высоким.

Статус верификации: Не верифицирован
Уровень вовлечённости (ER): Средний показатель вовлечённости аудитории составляет 10.14%. В первые 24 часа после публикации контент обычно набирает 4.72% реакций от общего числа подписчиков.
Охват публикаций: В среднем каждый пост получает 2 212 просмотров. В течение первых суток публикация набирает 1 029 просмотров.
Реакции и взаимодействия: Аудитория активно поддерживает контент: среднее количество реакций на один пост — 6.
Тематические интересы: Контент сосредоточен на ключевых темах, таких как patient, nerve, disease, deficiency, cell.

📝 Описание и контентная политика

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“PRIMIUM CONTENT ✨ - Any query contact- @Drconcept”

Благодаря высокой частоте обновлений (последние данные получены 20 июля, 2026) канал поддерживает актуальность и высокий уровень охвата публикаций. Аналитика показывает, что аудитория активно взаимодействует с контентом, что делает его важной точкой влияния в категории Медицина.

21 829

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~ 1 30448 часов

10.14%

Коэффициент вовлеченности

~ 4

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Дата	Привлечение подписчиков	Упоминания	Каналы
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Посты канала

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2	Your score?	768
3	Q1. B — Intracapsular neck femur fractures disrupt retinacular vessels leading to avascular necrosis of femoral head. Q2. A — Acute hematogenous osteomyelitis commonly affects metaphysis of long bones in children. Q3. C — Radial nerve runs in spiral groove and is commonly injured in shaft humerus fractures. Q4. D — Osteoarthritis shows joint space narrowing, osteophytes, and subchondral sclerosis. Q5. C — Sunburst appearance and Codman triangle are classic radiological findings of osteosarcoma. Q6. A — Positive Ortolani test indicates developmental dysplasia of hip in neonates. Q7. D — Colles fracture produces dorsal displacement and the characteristic dinner fork deformity. Q8. B — Locking and clicking after twisting injury strongly suggest medial meniscal tear. Q9. C — Axillary nerve injury causes deltoid weakness and sensory loss over regimental badge area. Q10. D — Pain on passive stretch with tense swelling is highly suggestive of compartment syndrome. Q11. A — SCFE occurs in obese adolescents and causes referred pain to knee. Q12. B — Snuffbox tenderness after trauma indicates scaphoid fracture despite normal initial X-ray. Q13. D — Perthes disease is idiopathic avascular necrosis of femoral head in children. Q14. C — Bamboo spine and inflammatory back pain are hallmark features of ankylosing spondylitis. Q15. B — Dashboard injury classically causes posterior cruciate ligament injury. Q16. D — Carpal tunnel syndrome affects median nerve distribution and worsens at night. Q17. A — Lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) causes pain on resisted wrist extension. Q18. C — Fat globules in aspirate indicate intra-articular fracture communicating with marrow. Q19. D — Common peroneal nerve winds around fibular neck and is vulnerable to injury. Q20. A — Bennett fracture is an intra-articular fracture-dislocation of first metacarpal base. Q21. B — Osteoporotic vertebral compression fractures are common in elderly women. Q22. C — Fever, severe pain, and joint effusion in child strongly suggest septic arthritis. Q23. D — Triad of hypoxia, petechiae, and neurological symptoms indicates fat embolism syndrome. Q24. A — Osgood-Schlatter disease is traction apophysitis of tibial tuberosity in adolescents. Q25. C — Rheumatoid arthritis predominantly involves MCP and PIP joints sparing DIPs. Q26. B — Quadriceps tendon rupture causes inability to extend knee with suprapatellar gap. Q27. D — Sequestrum is dead devascularized bone seen in chronic osteomyelitis. Q28. C — Heel pain during first morning steps is classic for plantar fasciitis. Q29. A — Long bone fractures with hypoxia and petechiae indicate fat embolism syndrome. Q30. B — Kienböck disease is avascular necrosis of the lunate bone.	773
4	🔥 Update India 1st Dengue Vaccine QDENGA Share with friends👇(for more) https://whatsapp.com/channel/0029Va6AT0Y2v1IqAGrRiU2W	631
5	🌍🎓 MBBS & PG ADMISSIONS 2026 🩺 🚀 Turn Your Medical Dream Into Reality! ✅ MBBS Admission in NMC-Approved Universities ✅ PG (MD/MS) Admission Guidance ✅ Affordable Tuition Fees ✅ Free Career Counselling ✅ Admission & Visa Assistance ✅ Education Loan Support ✅ Complete End-to-End Support (Admission to Graduation) 🌎 Top Destinations: 🇷🇺 Russia \| 🇬🇪 Georgia \| 🇰🇬 Kyrgyzstan \| 🇰🇿 Kazakhstan \| 🇺🇿 Uzbekistan \| 🇵🇭 Philippines & More 📩 DM to Secure Your MBBS/PG Seat 👉 https://t.me/Drconcept ✨ Trusted Guidance • Transparent Process • Bright Future ✨Telegram Group - https://t.me/MBBSAbroadHub	832
6	Answers will be available at 5 pm today ✅👇	555
7	Q16. A 55-year-old woman presents with pain and numbness over thumb, index, and middle fingers worsening at night. Tinel and Phalen tests are positive. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Cubital tunnel syndrome B. Thoracic outlet syndrome C. Ulnar neuropathy D. Carpal tunnel syndrome Q17. A patient presents with pain over lateral elbow aggravated by wrist extension against resistance. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Lateral epicondylitis B. Medial epicondylitis C. Olecranon bursitis D. Radial tunnel syndrome Q18. A young man presents with severe knee pain and swelling after trauma. Aspiration reveals fat globules in blood-stained fluid. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Septic arthritis B. Meniscal injury C. Intra-articular fracture D. Hemophilic arthropathy Q19. A 22-year-old motorcyclist presents with inability to dorsiflex foot following fracture neck of fibula. Which nerve is injured? A. Tibial nerve B. Sural nerve C. Saphenous nerve D. Common peroneal nerve Q20. A patient presents with severe pain and swelling at the base of thumb after punching injury. X-ray reveals fracture-dislocation of first carpometacarpal joint. Which fracture is this? A. Bennett fracture B. Colles fracture C. Rolando fracture D. Boxer's fracture Q21. A 70-year-old woman presents with acute back pain after lifting a bucket. X-ray reveals wedge compression fracture of vertebra. Which underlying condition is most likely? A. Metastatic disease B. Osteoporosis C. Tuberculosis spine D. Multiple myeloma Q22. A child presents with fever, refusal to move hip, and severe pain with passive movements. Ultrasound shows joint effusion. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Transient synovitis B. Perthes disease C. Septic arthritis D. Juvenile idiopathic arthritis Q23. A patient develops respiratory distress, petechial rash, and neurological symptoms 48 hours after femoral shaft fracture. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Pulmonary embolism B. ARDS C. Pneumonia D. Fat embolism syndrome Q24. A patient presents with pain and swelling over tibial tuberosity aggravated by sports activity in adolescence. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Osgood-Schlatter disease B. Patellar dislocation C. Chondromalacia patella D. Meniscal injury Q25. A patient with rheumatoid arthritis develops ulnar deviation and swan neck deformities of fingers. Which joint involvement is characteristic? A. DIP joints B. First carpometacarpal joint C. MCP and PIP joints D. Sacroiliac joints Q26. A patient presents with inability to actively extend knee after injury and palpable gap above patella. Which tendon is most likely ruptured? A. Patellar tendon B. Quadriceps tendon C. Achilles tendon D. Hamstring tendon Q27. A patient with chronic osteomyelitis develops a dense piece of dead bone surrounded by involucrum on imaging. What is this dead bone called? A. Cloaca B. Brodie abscess C. Involucrum D. Sequestrum Q28. A patient presents with pain over heel worst during first steps in the morning. Examination reveals tenderness at medial calcaneal tubercle. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Achilles tendinitis B. Calcaneal fracture C. Plantar fasciitis D. Retrocalcaneal bursitis Q29. A patient presents with fracture shaft of femur and develops hypoxia and confusion after 24 hours. Petechiae are noted over chest wall. Which syndrome is most likely? A. Fat embolism syndrome B. Pulmonary edema C. DIC D. ARDS Q30. A patient presents with chronic wrist pain and collapse of lunate bone due to avascular necrosis. Which disease is this? A. Preiser disease B. Kienböck disease C. Perthes disease D. Freiberg disease	600
8	Q1. A 72-year-old woman slips in the bathroom and is unable to bear weight on her left leg. Examination reveals shortening and external rotation of the limb. X-ray shows an intracapsular fracture of the femoral neck. Which complication is most feared in this injury? A. Malunion B. Avascular necrosis of femoral head C. Compartment syndrome D. Fat embolism syndrome Q2. A 10-year-old boy presents with fever, severe pain around the knee, and refusal to bear weight. ESR and CRP are elevated. MRI shows metaphyseal involvement of distal femur. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Septic arthritis B. Acute osteomyelitis C. Ewing sarcoma D. Osteosarcoma Q3. A 22-year-old man presents after a road traffic accident with deformity and severe pain over the midshaft of humerus. He is unable to extend his wrist and fingers. Which nerve is most likely injured? A. Median nerve B. Ulnar nerve C. Radial nerve D. Axillary nerve Q4. A 65-year-old woman presents with chronic knee pain worsened by activity and relieved by rest. X-ray reveals joint space narrowing, osteophytes, and subchondral sclerosis. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Gout C. Septic arthritis D. Osteoarthritis Q5. A 16-year-old boy presents with pain and swelling around the knee. X-ray reveals a sunburst appearance and Codman triangle arising from the metaphysis of distal femur. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Osteochondroma B. Giant cell tumor C. Osteosarcoma D. Ewing sarcoma Q6. A newborn presents with asymmetric thigh folds and positive Ortolani test during examination. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Developmental dysplasia of hip B. Perthes disease C. Slipped capital femoral epiphysis D. Coxa vara Q7. A patient presents after falling on an outstretched hand with dinner fork deformity of wrist. Which fracture is most likely? A. Smith fracture B. Scaphoid fracture C. Barton fracture D. Colles fracture Q8. A 25-year-old football player presents with twisting injury to the knee followed by locking and clicking sensation. McMurray test is positive. Which structure is most likely injured? A. Anterior cruciate ligament B. Medial meniscus C. Posterior cruciate ligament D. Lateral collateral ligament Q9. A patient presents after shoulder dislocation with inability to abduct arm beyond 15 degrees and numbness over regimental badge area. Which nerve is injured? A. Musculocutaneous nerve B. Radial nerve C. Axillary nerve D. Median nerve Q10. A 35-year-old man develops severe pain in leg after tibial fracture. Examination reveals tense swelling, pain on passive stretch, and diminished pulses. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Fat embolism syndrome B. Deep vein thrombosis C. Cellulitis D. Compartment syndrome Q11. A 14-year-old obese boy presents with hip pain referred to the knee and limping. X-ray shows posterior displacement of femoral epiphysis. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Slipped capital femoral epiphysis B. Perthes disease C. Septic arthritis hip D. Transient synovitis Q12. A patient presents with pain in anatomical snuffbox after a fall on outstretched hand. Initial X-ray is normal. Which fracture should be suspected? A. Colles fracture B. Scaphoid fracture C. Lunate fracture D. Hamate fracture Q13. A 6-year-old child presents with painless limp and limitation of hip abduction. X-ray shows avascular necrosis of femoral head. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. SCFE B. Septic arthritis C. DDH D. Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease Q14. A 28-year-old man presents with low back pain improving with exercise and associated morning stiffness. X-ray shows bamboo spine appearance. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Osteoarthritis B. Disc prolapse C. Ankylosing spondylitis D. Osteoporosis Q15. A patient presents after dashboard injury in an RTA with posterior displacement of tibia relative to femur. Which ligament is injured? A. ACL B. PCL C. MCL D. LCL	629
9	Today questions on Orthopaedic ✅👇	638
10	𝗗𝗼𝗻’𝘁 𝗠𝗮𝘁𝗰𝗵 𝗘𝗴𝗼𝘀. 𝗠𝗮𝘁𝗰𝗵 𝗩𝗶𝗯𝗲𝘀. 𝗦𝘂𝗿𝗿𝗼𝘂𝗻𝗱 𝗬𝗼𝘂𝗿𝘀𝗲𝗹𝗳 𝗪𝗶𝘁𝗵 𝗣𝗲𝗼𝗽𝗹𝗲 𝗪𝗵𝗼 𝗠𝗮𝗸𝗲 𝗬𝗼𝘂 𝗙𝗲𝗲𝗹 𝗚𝗼𝗼𝗱 𝗔𝗯𝗼𝘂𝘁 𝗬𝗼𝘂𝗿𝘀𝗲𝗹𝗳.	909
11	Your score?	1 088
12	Q1. B — In a child aged 2–12 months, respiratory rate >50/min with cough and fast breathing indicates pneumonia by IMNCI criteria. Q2. A — VSD commonly presents with failure to thrive, recurrent infections, and pansystolic murmur. Q3. C — Generalized edema with protein deficiency and preserved fat stores is characteristic of kwashiorkor. Q4. D — Jaundice within the first 24 hours is always pathological and Rh hemolytic disease is a major cause. Q5. C — Migratory arthritis, carditis, and elevated ASO titer after streptococcal infection indicate acute rheumatic fever. Q6. A — Macroglossia, constipation, and developmental delay are classical features of congenital hypothyroidism. Q7. D — Barking cough with inspiratory stridor is typical of viral croup. Q8. B — Double bubble sign is highly suggestive of duodenal atresia. Q9. C — Microcytic hypochromic anemia with pica is classical for iron deficiency anemia. Q10. D — TOF is the commonest cyanotic congenital heart disease beyond infancy. Q11. A — Bow legs, rachitic rosary, and widened wrists are classical signs of nutritional rickets. Q12. B — Hematuria and edema after streptococcal infection suggest PSGN. Q13. D — Delayed meconium passage with explosive stools after rectal examination suggests Hirschsprung disease. Q14. C — Fever lasting more than 5 days with strawberry tongue and desquamation suggests Kawasaki disease. Q15. B — Isolated thrombocytopenia with bleeding manifestations is typical of ITP. Q16. D — Recurrent wheezing with atopy strongly favors childhood asthma. Q17. A — Hyperammonemia in the neonatal period is highly suggestive of a urea cycle defect. Q18. C — Brief generalized seizure associated with fever in a neurologically normal child is a febrile seizure. Q19. D — Ground glass appearance in preterm infants is classic for neonatal RDS. Q20. A — Vesicles on hands, feet, and oral cavity are characteristic of hand-foot-mouth disease. Q21. B — Massive proteinuria with normal BP and renal function suggests minimal change disease. Q22. C — Bone pain, blasts, hepatosplenomegaly, and lymphadenopathy indicate ALL. Q23. D — Pneumatosis intestinalis is pathognomonic for necrotizing enterocolitis. Q24. A — Bilateral painful parotid enlargement is characteristic of mumps. Q25. C — Severe transfusion-dependent anemia with target cells indicates thalassemia major. Q26. B — Colicky pain with red currant jelly stool and target sign confirms intussusception. Q27. D — Lethargy with weak pulses and marked dehydration indicates severe dehydration. Q28. C — Hemarthrosis with isolated prolonged aPTT suggests Hemophilia A. Q29. A — Single palmar crease and hypotonia are classical findings in Down syndrome. Q30. B — Prolonged fever with relative bradycardia and positive blood culture suggests enteric fever.	1 106
13	Answers will be available at 5 pm today ✅👇	1 054
14	Q16. A 2-year-old child presents with recurrent episodes of wheezing associated with viral infections and family history of atopy. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Bronchiolitis B. Foreign body aspiration C. Cystic fibrosis D. Bronchial asthma Q17. A newborn develops lethargy, poor feeding, vomiting, and hyperammonemia within 48 hours of life. Which metabolic disorder should be suspected? A. Urea cycle disorder B. Galactosemia C. Phenylketonuria D. Glycogen storage disease Q18. A 9-month-old infant presents with fever and generalized tonic-clonic seizure lasting 3 minutes. Child is neurologically normal after recovery. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Epilepsy B. Meningitis C. Febrile seizure D. Hypoglycemia Q19. A preterm neonate develops respiratory distress soon after birth with grunting and chest retractions. Chest X-ray shows ground glass appearance. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Meconium aspiration syndrome B. Neonatal pneumonia C. Transient tachypnea of newborn D. Hyaline membrane disease Q20. A child presents with fever, oral ulcers, and vesicular lesions over palms and soles. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Hand-foot-mouth disease B. Varicella C. Measles D. Rubella Q21. A 4-year-old child presents with edema, massive proteinuria, and hypoalbuminemia. Blood pressure and renal function are normal. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Acute glomerulonephritis B. Minimal change nephrotic syndrome C. Chronic kidney disease D. HUS Q22. A 6-year-old child presents with pallor, bone pain, lymphadenopathy, and hepatosplenomegaly. Peripheral smear reveals blasts. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Aplastic anemia B. ITP C. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia D. Thalassemia Q23. A newborn develops abdominal distension, bloody stools, and feeding intolerance. X-ray abdomen shows pneumatosis intestinalis. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Hirschsprung disease B. Meconium ileus C. Intestinal atresia D. Necrotizing enterocolitis Q24. A child presents with fever, bilateral parotid swelling, and pain while chewing. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Mumps B. Diphtheria C. Rubella D. Measles Q25. A 3-year-old child presents with progressive abdominal distension and severe anemia requiring repeated transfusions. Peripheral smear shows target cells. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Iron deficiency anemia B. Sickle cell disease C. Thalassemia major D. Hereditary spherocytosis Q26. A 2-year-old child presents with recurrent episodes of colicky abdominal pain and red currant jelly stools. Ultrasound shows target sign. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Appendicitis B. Intussusception C. Volvulus D. Meckel diverticulum Q27. A child develops severe dehydration due to acute gastroenteritis. Examination reveals lethargy, sunken eyes, and weak pulses. Which category of dehydration is most likely? A. No dehydration B. Some dehydration C. Mild dehydration D. Severe dehydration Q28. A 10-year-old child presents with recurrent bleeding into joints after minor trauma. aPTT is prolonged while PT is normal. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. von Willebrand disease B. ITP C. Hemophilia A D. DIC Q29. A newborn presents with hypotonia, upslanting palpebral fissures, flat facial profile, and single palmar crease. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Down syndrome B. Turner syndrome C. Edwards syndrome D. Patau syndrome Q30. A child presents with fever for 7 days, abdominal pain, relative bradycardia, and hepatosplenomegaly. Blood culture grows Salmonella typhi. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Malaria B. Enteric fever C. Dengue fever D. Leptospirosis	1 090
15	Q1. A 2-year-old child presents with fever, cough, tachypnea, and chest indrawing for one day. Respiratory rate is 52/min and oxygen saturation is 95% on room air. According to IMNCI classification, what is the most appropriate diagnosis? A. No pneumonia B. Pneumonia C. Severe pneumonia D. Very severe disease Q2. A 6-month-old infant presents with excessive crying, sweating during feeds, and failure to thrive. Examination reveals tachycardia and a pansystolic murmur at the left lower sternal border. Which congenital heart disease is most likely? A. Ventricular septal defect B. Atrial septal defect C. Patent ductus arteriosus D. Tetralogy of Fallot Q3. A 3-year-old child presents with generalized edema, moon face, hepatomegaly, and skin changes. Dietary history reveals predominantly carbohydrate intake with inadequate protein consumption. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Marasmus B. Marasmic kwashiorkor C. Kwashiorkor D. Nephrotic syndrome Q4. A newborn develops jaundice within 12 hours of birth. Blood group testing reveals Rh incompatibility between mother and baby. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Physiological jaundice B. Breast milk jaundice C. Neonatal sepsis D. Hemolytic disease of newborn Q5. A 5-year-old child presents with fever, migratory polyarthritis, and carditis two weeks after sore throat. ASO titers are elevated. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Juvenile idiopathic arthritis B. Septic arthritis C. Acute rheumatic fever D. Systemic lupus erythematosus Q6. A 1-year-old child presents with developmental delay, protruding tongue, umbilical hernia, and constipation. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Congenital hypothyroidism B. Down syndrome C. Cerebral palsy D. Rickets Q7. A 4-year-old child presents with fever, barking cough, inspiratory stridor, and hoarseness of voice. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Acute epiglottitis B. Foreign body aspiration C. Retropharyngeal abscess D. Croup Q8. A newborn develops bilious vomiting and abdominal distension within the first day of life. X-ray abdomen shows double bubble sign. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Pyloric stenosis B. Duodenal atresia C. Hirschsprung disease D. Meconium ileus Q9. A 2-year-old child presents with pallor and pica. Hemoglobin is 7 g/dL with microcytic hypochromic anemia. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Thalassemia major B. Sideroblastic anemia C. Iron deficiency anemia D. Aplastic anemia Q10. A 6-month-old infant presents with recurrent chest infections, poor weight gain, and central cyanosis. Squatting episodes are absent. Echocardiography confirms a cyanotic congenital heart disease. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. VSD B. ASD C. PDA D. Tetralogy of Fallot Q11. A 2-year-old child presents with bowing of legs, widening of wrists, and delayed closure of anterior fontanelle. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Nutritional rickets B. Osteogenesis imperfecta C. Scurvy D. Achondroplasia Q12. A 7-year-old child presents with cola-colored urine and facial puffiness following sore throat 2 weeks earlier. Urinalysis shows RBC casts. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis C. IgA nephropathy D. Hemolytic uremic syndrome Q13. A newborn delivered at term fails to pass meconium within 48 hours and develops abdominal distension. Rectal examination causes explosive passage of stool. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Meconium ileus B. Necrotizing enterocolitis C. Intestinal atresia D. Hirschsprung disease Q14. A 3-year-old child presents with fever, conjunctivitis, strawberry tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy, and desquamation of hands and feet. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Scarlet fever B. Measles C. Kawasaki disease D. Rubella Q15. A child presents with fever, petechiae, and bleeding manifestations. CBC reveals thrombocytopenia with normal hemoglobin and leukocyte count. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Acute leukemia B. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura C. Aplastic anemia D. Hemophilia	935
16	Today Questions on Pediatrics ✅👇	908
17	💯	1 167
18	Your score?	1 345
19	Q1. B — Painless third-trimester bleeding with a soft uterus is classical for placenta previa. Q2. A — Ectopic pregnancy presents with amenorrhea, pain, spotting, and adnexal mass with empty uterus. Q3. C — Hypertension with proteinuria after 20 weeks defines preeclampsia. Q4. D — Sudden pain, cessation of contractions, and palpable fetal parts indicate uterine rupture. Q5. C — Imperforate hymen causes primary amenorrhea with cyclical pain and hematocolpos. Q6. A — PCOS is characterized by oligomenorrhea, infertility, and polycystic ovaries. Q7. D — Painful bleeding with a tender rigid uterus is typical of abruptio placentae. Q8. B — Chocolate cysts are ovarian endometriomas seen in endometriosis. Q9. C — Uterine atony is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage. Q10. D — Seizures occurring in a woman with preeclampsia indicate eclampsia. Q11. A — Fibroids present with menorrhagia and an enlarged irregular uterus. Q12. B — MRI pituitary is indicated in hyperprolactinemia to rule out prolactinoma. Q13. D — Cesarean section is the treatment of choice in cephalopelvic disproportion. Q14. C — Fixed retroverted uterus with POD nodules is characteristic of endometriosis. Q15. B — Postmenopausal bleeding should be considered endometrial carcinoma until proven otherwise. Q16. D — Retained dead fetus may lead to DIC due to thromboplastin release. Q17. A — Strawberry cervix is a classic finding in Trichomonas infection. Q18. C — Snowstorm appearance on ultrasound is diagnostic of hydatidiform mole. Q19. D — Fever, uterine tenderness, and foul lochia suggest puerperal sepsis. Q20. A — Localized overgrowth of endometrium seen on hysteroscopy indicates endometrial polyp. Q21. B — Hyperglycemia first detected during pregnancy is gestational diabetes mellitus. Q22. C — Fever, pelvic pain, and cervical motion tenderness are classical for PID. Q23. D — Amenorrhea, pain, shock, and free fluid suggest ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Q24. A — Descent of uterus beyond introitus indicates uterovaginal prolapse. Q25. C — Persistent fetal heart rate below 110/min indicates fetal bradycardia. Q26. B — Postpartum hemorrhage with lactation failure suggests Sheehan syndrome. Q27. D — Absent ovarian blood flow with acute pain indicates ovarian torsion. Q28. C — Contact bleeding and ulcerative lesion are suggestive of cervical carcinoma. Q29. A — Elevated FSH with streak ovaries is characteristic of Turner syndrome. Q30. B — Hypertension after 20 weeks without proteinuria is gestational hypertension.	1 384
20	Q16. A primigravida at 41 weeks gestation has absent fetal movements. Ultrasound confirms intrauterine fetal demise. Which complication is most feared with prolonged retention? A. Polyhydramnios B. Preeclampsia C. Chorioamnionitis D. Disseminated intravascular coagulation Q17. A 24-year-old woman presents with foul-smelling vaginal discharge and strawberry cervix on examination. Which organism is the most likely cause? A. Trichomonas vaginalis B. Candida albicans C. Gardnerella vaginalis D. Chlamydia trachomatis Q18. A 29-year-old woman presents with amenorrhea and positive pregnancy test. Ultrasound shows multiple cystic spaces giving a snowstorm appearance. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Missed abortion B. Ectopic pregnancy C. Hydatidiform mole D. Placental mesenchymal dysplasia Q19. A woman develops fever, uterine tenderness, and foul-smelling lochia 3 days after delivery. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Mastitis B. Urinary tract infection C. Septic pelvic thrombophlebitis D. Puerperal sepsis Q20. A 35-year-old woman presents with intermenstrual bleeding and infertility. Hysteroscopy reveals a localized overgrowth of endometrial tissue. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Endometrial polyp B. Submucous fibroid C. Adenomyosis D. Endometrial hyperplasia Q21. A pregnant woman at 28 weeks gestation develops fasting blood sugar of 110 mg/dL and postprandial glucose of 170 mg/dL. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus B. Gestational diabetes mellitus C. Type 2 diabetes mellitus D. Impaired glucose tolerance Q22. A 23-year-old woman presents with lower abdominal pain, fever, and cervical motion tenderness. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Endometriosis B. Ovarian torsion C. Pelvic inflammatory disease D. Appendicitis Q23. A patient develops sudden severe lower abdominal pain and syncope at 7 weeks amenorrhea. Ultrasound reveals free fluid in pouch of Douglas. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Threatened abortion B. Corpus luteal cyst C. Ovarian torsion D. Ruptured ectopic pregnancy Q24. A 40-year-old multiparous woman presents with something coming out per vaginum. Examination reveals descent of uterus beyond introitus. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Uterovaginal prolapse B. Cystocele C. Rectocele D. Enterocele Q25. A woman in labor develops fetal heart rate of 90/min persisting for more than 10 minutes. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Fetal tachycardia B. Normal fetal heart rate C. Fetal bradycardia D. Sinus arrhythmia Q26. A woman presents with secondary amenorrhea following postpartum hemorrhage and failure of lactation. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Asherman syndrome B. Sheehan syndrome C. Turner syndrome D. PCOS Q27. A 30-year-old woman presents with acute abdominal pain and ultrasound reveals an enlarged ovary with absent blood flow on Doppler examination. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Endometrioma B. Tubo-ovarian abscess C. Hemorrhagic cyst D. Ovarian torsion Q28. A 34-year-old woman presents with contact bleeding and postcoital spotting. Examination reveals an ulcerative cervical lesion. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Cervical ectropion B. Cervical polyp C. Carcinoma cervix D. Chronic cervicitis Q29. A woman presents with primary infertility and elevated FSH levels with streak ovaries on ultrasound. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Turner syndrome B. PCOS C. Hyperprolactinemia D. Endometriosis Q30. A pregnant woman at 36 weeks develops blood pressure of 150/100 mmHg without proteinuria or end-organ dysfunction. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Chronic hypertension B. Gestational hypertension C. Preeclampsia D. White coat hypertension	1 406

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