NEETPG, INICET, FMGE PYT
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📈 Аналитический обзор Telegram-канала NEETPG, INICET, FMGE PYT
Канал NEETPG, INICET, FMGE PYT (@neetpg_pyt) языкового сегмента Английский является активным участником. Сейчас сообщество объединяет 21 630 подписчиков, занимая 1 047 место в категории Медицина и 19 419 место в регионе Индия.
📊 Показатели аудитории и динамика
С момента создания невідомо проект демонстрирует стремительный рост, собрав аудиторию из 21 630 подписчиков.
Согласно последним данным от 16 июля, 2026, канал показывает стабильную активность. За последние 30 дней изменение числа участников составило 560, а за последние 24 часа — 15, при этом общий охват остаётся высоким.
- Статус верификации: Не верифицирован
- Уровень вовлечённости (ER): Средний показатель вовлечённости аудитории составляет 10.50%. В первые 24 часа после публикации контент обычно набирает 4.88% реакций от общего числа подписчиков.
- Охват публикаций: В среднем каждый пост получает 2 270 просмотров. В течение первых суток публикация набирает 1 054 просмотров.
- Реакции и взаимодействия: Аудитория активно поддерживает контент: среднее количество реакций на один пост — 7.
- Тематические интересы: Контент сосредоточен на ключевых темах, таких как patient, nerve, disease, deficiency, cell.
📝 Описание и контентная политика
Автор описывает ресурс как площадку для выражения субъективного мнения:
“PRIMIUM CONTENT ✨
- Any query contact- @Drconcept”
Благодаря высокой частоте обновлений (последние данные получены 17 июля, 2026) канал поддерживает актуальность и высокий уровень охвата публикаций. Аналитика показывает, что аудитория активно взаимодействует с контентом, что делает его важной точкой влияния в категории Медицина.
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Посты канала
| 2 | Q15. A 58-year-old man presents with altered bowel habits, weight loss, and iron deficiency anemia. Colonoscopy reveals a right-sided colonic growth. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Ulcerative colitis
B. Carcinoma colon
C. Crohn disease
D. Diverticulosis
Q16. A patient presents with severe pain and swelling of the scrotum with absent cremasteric reflex and high-riding testis. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Epididymitis
B. Hydrocele
C. Varicocele
D. Testicular torsion
Q17. A 65-year-old smoker presents with a pulsatile abdominal mass and back pain. Ultrasound shows infrarenal aortic dilatation measuring 6 cm. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Abdominal aortic aneurysm
B. Aortic dissection
C. Retroperitoneal fibrosis
D. Mesenteric cyst
Q18. A patient presents with recurrent upper abdominal discomfort relieved by food intake. Endoscopy reveals a duodenal ulcer. Which organism is commonly associated?
A. Escherichia coli
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Helicobacter pylori
D. Klebsiella pneumoniae
Q19. A patient with severe pancreatitis develops bluish discoloration around the umbilicus. Which sign is demonstrated?
A. Murphy sign
B. Rovsing sign
C. Kehr sign
D. Cullen sign
Q20. A woman presents with a mobile, firm, painless breast lump measuring 2 cm. FNAC suggests fibroadenoma. Which age group is most commonly affected?
A. Young women in 15–25 years
B. Postmenopausal women
C. Elderly women above 60 years
D. Males in adolescence
Q21. A patient presents with progressive dysphagia initially to solids and later to liquids associated with weight loss. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Achalasia cardia
B. Carcinoma esophagus
C. Diffuse esophageal spasm
D. Peptic stricture
Q22. A patient presents with severe pain and swelling over the natal cleft with purulent discharge. Examination reveals multiple midline pits containing hair. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Perianal fistula
B. Hidradenitis suppurativa
C. Pilonidal sinus
D. Dermoid cyst
Q23. A patient with long-standing ulcerative colitis presents with worsening symptoms and significant weight loss. Colonoscopy reveals a suspicious mass lesion. Which complication is most likely?
A. Toxic megacolon
B. Fistula formation
C. Stricture formation
D. Colorectal carcinoma
Q24. A 30-year-old woman presents with diffuse thyroid enlargement, tremors, and exophthalmos. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Graves disease
B. Hashimoto thyroiditis
C. Multinodular goiter
D. Thyroid lymphoma
Q25. A patient presents with severe epigastric pain radiating to the back with elevated serum lipase levels. Contrast CT reveals pancreatic inflammation without necrosis. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Perforated ulcer
B. Acute cholecystitis
C. Acute pancreatitis
D. Mesenteric ischemia
Q26. A 68-year-old man presents with urinary hesitancy, weak stream, and nocturia. Digital rectal examination reveals a smooth enlarged prostate. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Prostate carcinoma
B. Benign prostatic hyperplasia
C. Prostatitis
D. Urethral stricture
Q27. A patient presents with rapidly progressive swelling and crepitus in a contaminated wound after trauma. Imaging reveals gas within soft tissues. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Necrotizing fasciitis
B. Cellulitis
C. Abscess
D. Gas gangrene
Q28. A patient develops severe abdominal pain and vomiting after previous abdominal surgery. Adhesions are suspected. Which is the most common cause of small bowel obstruction in adults?
A. Volvulus
B. Hernia
C. Postoperative adhesions
D. Intussusception
Q29. A patient presents with a neck swelling that moves upward on protrusion of the tongue and swallowing. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Thyroglossal cyst
B. Branchial cyst
C. Dermoid cyst
D. Cystic hygroma
Q30. A patient presents with painless jaundice and significant weight loss. CT scan reveals a mass in the head of pancreas causing biliary obstruction. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Cholangiocarcinoma
B. Carcinoma head of pancreas
C. Gallbladder carcinoma
D. Ampullary carcinoma | 377 |
| 3 | Q1. A 55-year-old obese woman presents with colicky right upper quadrant pain occurring after fatty meals and radiating to the right scapula. Ultrasonography reveals multiple gallstones without gallbladder wall thickening. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute cholecystitis
B. Symptomatic cholelithiasis
C. Choledocholithiasis
D. Gallbladder carcinoma
Q2. A 45-year-old man presents with painless progressive jaundice, weight loss, and pruritus. Examination reveals a palpable non-tender gallbladder. Which clinical sign is demonstrated?
A. Murphy sign
B. Courvoisier sign
C. Grey Turner sign
D. Cullen sign
Q3. A 23-year-old man presents with periumbilical pain migrating to the right iliac fossa associated with nausea and anorexia. Examination reveals tenderness at McBurney's point. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Meckel diverticulitis
B. Crohn disease
C. Acute appendicitis
D. Mesenteric adenitis
Q4. A 65-year-old smoker presents with sudden severe abdominal pain out of proportion to physical findings. He has atrial fibrillation and elevated serum lactate levels. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Perforated peptic ulcer
B. Acute pancreatitis
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Acute mesenteric ischemia
Q5. A 40-year-old man presents with severe epigastric pain and board-like abdominal rigidity. Erect chest radiograph reveals free air under the diaphragm. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute cholecystitis
B. Acute appendicitis
C. Perforated peptic ulcer
D. Acute pancreatitis
Q6. A 50-year-old woman presents with a painless solitary thyroid nodule. Fine needle aspiration cytology reveals papillary structures with psammoma bodies. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Papillary carcinoma thyroid
B. Follicular adenoma
C. Medullary carcinoma thyroid
D. Anaplastic carcinoma thyroid
Q7. A patient presents with severe abdominal distension, vomiting, and inability to pass flatus or stool. X-ray abdomen shows multiple air-fluid levels with central dilated bowel loops. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Paralytic ileus
B. Volvulus
C. Intussusception
D. Small bowel obstruction
Q8. A 28-year-old man presents with reducible swelling in the groin that increases on coughing and descends into the scrotum through the deep inguinal ring. Which type of hernia is most likely?
A. Femoral hernia
B. Indirect inguinal hernia
C. Direct inguinal hernia
D. Obturator hernia
Q9. A 60-year-old diabetic patient presents with a black necrotic foot ulcer associated with absent distal pulses and intermittent claudication. Which type of gangrene is most likely?
A. Wet gangrene
B. Gas gangrene
C. Dry gangrene
D. Fournier gangrene
Q10. A patient presents with painful swelling near the anal verge associated with fever and throbbing pain. Examination reveals a fluctuant tender swelling. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Hemorrhoids
B. Fissure in ano
C. Fistula in ano
D. Perianal abscess
Q11. A 48-year-old woman presents with a breast lump. Mammography reveals spiculated margins and microcalcifications. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Carcinoma breast
B. Fibroadenoma
C. Breast cyst
D. Fat necrosis
Q12. A 35-year-old man presents with severe pain during defecation and streaks of bright red blood on stool. Examination reveals a posterior midline tear in anal mucosa. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Internal hemorrhoids
B. Fissure in ano
C. Rectal carcinoma
D. Fistula in ano
Q13. A patient develops severe pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesia, and paralysis in the lower limb. Which vascular emergency is most likely?
A. Deep vein thrombosis
B. Chronic limb ischemia
C. Varicose veins
D. Acute arterial occlusion
Q14. A 52-year-old alcoholic presents with hematemesis and abdominal distension. Endoscopy reveals dilated veins in the lower esophagus. Which condition is most likely responsible?
A. Gastric carcinoma
B. Achalasia cardia
C. Portal hypertension
D. Hiatus hernia | 331 |
| 4 |  Break Out 🙌 | 1 194 |
| 5 | Your score? | 1 347 |
| 6 | Q1. B — Inferior wall MI involving leads II, III, and aVF is most commonly due to right coronary artery occlusion.
Q2. A — Graves disease presents with diffuse toxic goiter, hyperthyroidism, and ophthalmopathy.
Q3. C — COPD is characterized by persistent airflow limitation with poor bronchodilator reversibility.
Q4. D — Malar rash, oral ulcers, nephritis, and anti-dsDNA positivity are classic for SLE.
Q5. C — Acute pancreatitis presents with severe epigastric pain radiating to the back and elevated pancreatic enzymes.
Q6. A — Primary biliary cholangitis is associated with cholestatic enzymes and antimitochondrial antibodies.
Q7. D — Progressive dysphagia from solids to liquids with weight loss strongly suggests esophageal carcinoma.
Q8. B — Bronchial asthma shows reversible airflow obstruction and nocturnal symptoms.
Q9. C — Lobar consolidation with air bronchograms indicates community-acquired pneumonia.
Q10. D — Painless hematuria in an elderly smoker is bladder cancer until proven otherwise.
Q11. A — Elevated TSH with low T4 indicates primary hypothyroidism due to thyroid gland failure.
Q12. B — Resting tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia form the classical triad of Parkinson disease.
Q13. D — Ascites, spider angiomas, and a nodular liver are hallmark features of cirrhosis.
Q14. C — Needle-shaped negatively birefringent crystals are diagnostic of gout.
Q15. B — Sudden focal neurological deficit without hemorrhage on CT indicates ischemic stroke.
Q16. D — Neutrophilic CSF with low glucose is typical of acute bacterial meningitis.
Q17. A — Fatigable weakness with ocular involvement strongly suggests myasthenia gravis.
Q18. C — Exertional chest pain relieved by rest is characteristic of stable angina.
Q19. D — Skin tightening, Raynaud phenomenon, and dysphagia suggest systemic sclerosis.
Q20. A — Hyperpigmentation with low cortisol and high ACTH indicates Addison disease.
Q21. B — Progressive memory impairment with functional decline is typical of Alzheimer disease.
Q22. C — Multisystem involvement with positive ANA and anti-dsDNA confirms SLE.
Q23. D — Tearing chest pain radiating to the back with pulse differential suggests aortic dissection.
Q24. A — Villous atrophy with chronic diarrhea and iron deficiency anemia indicates celiac disease.
Q25. C — Upper lobe cavitary lesions with constitutional symptoms are classic for pulmonary tuberculosis.
Q26. B — Primary biliary cholangitis causes cholestasis and positive antimitochondrial antibodies.
Q27. D — Ascending paralysis with areflexia after infection is typical of Guillain-Barré syndrome.
Q28. C — Squamous cell carcinoma is a hilar tumor associated with paraneoplastic hypercalcemia.
Q29. A — Episodic headache, sweating, hypertension, and elevated metanephrines indicate pheochromocytoma.
Q30. B — Obesity, snoring, and witnessed apneas strongly suggest obstructive sleep apnea. | 1 330 |
| 7 | Answers will be available at 5 pm today ✅👇 | 1 216 |
| 8 | Q30. A 50-year-old obese man presents with loud snoring, excessive daytime sleepiness, and witnessed apneic episodes during sleep. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Narcolepsy
B. Obstructive sleep apnea
C. Central sleep apnea
D. Insomnia | 1 249 |
| 9 | Q15. A 72-year-old hypertensive patient presents with sudden onset right-sided weakness and aphasia. CT scan shows no intracranial bleed. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
B. Ischemic stroke
C. Epidural hematoma
D. Subdural hematoma
Q16. A 23-year-old man presents with fever, altered sensorium, neck rigidity, and positive Kernig sign. CSF examination reveals neutrophilic pleocytosis with low glucose. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Viral meningitis
B. Tubercular meningitis
C. Fungal meningitis
D. Acute bacterial meningitis
Q17. A 35-year-old woman presents with proximal muscle weakness, ptosis, and diplopia worsening by evening. Symptoms improve after rest. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Myasthenia gravis
B. Guillain-Barré syndrome
C. Multiple sclerosis
D. Polymyositis
Q18. A 60-year-old man with diabetes presents with exertional chest pain relieved by rest within 5 minutes. ECG at rest is normal. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Acute coronary syndrome
B. Pericarditis
C. Stable angina
D. Aortic dissection
Q19. A 42-year-old woman presents with progressive skin tightening of fingers, dysphagia, and Raynaud phenomenon. ANA is positive. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Dermatomyositis
B. Mixed connective tissue disease
C. SLE
D. Systemic sclerosis
Q20. A 45-year-old man presents with chronic diarrhea, weight loss, and hyperpigmentation. Laboratory evaluation reveals low cortisol and elevated ACTH levels. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Primary adrenal insufficiency
B. Cushing syndrome
C. Pheochromocytoma
D. Hyperaldosteronism
Q21. A 70-year-old man presents with progressive memory loss, difficulty recognizing family members, and impaired daily functioning. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Vascular dementia
B. Alzheimer disease
C. Frontotemporal dementia
D. Lewy body dementia
Q22. A patient presents with fever, butterfly rash, migratory arthritis, and pancytopenia. ANA and anti-dsDNA antibodies are positive. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Mixed connective tissue disease
C. Systemic lupus erythematosus
D. Polyarteritis nodosa
Q23. A 45-year-old man presents with severe tearing chest pain radiating to the back. Blood pressure differs significantly between both arms. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Pulmonary embolism
B. Acute pericarditis
C. Myocardial infarction
D. Aortic dissection
Q24. A 34-year-old woman presents with recurrent oral ulcers, iron deficiency anemia, and chronic diarrhea. Endoscopy with biopsy reveals villous atrophy. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Celiac disease
B. Crohn disease
C. Ulcerative colitis
D. Irritable bowel syndrome
Q25. A 55-year-old man presents with fever, productive cough, night sweats, and weight loss. Chest radiograph reveals upper lobe cavitary lesions. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Lung abscess
B. Bronchogenic carcinoma
C. Pulmonary tuberculosis
D. Sarcoidosis
Q26. A 48-year-old woman presents with fatigue and generalized pruritus. Laboratory evaluation shows elevated alkaline phosphatase and antimitochondrial antibody positivity. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Autoimmune hepatitis
B. Primary biliary cholangitis
C. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
D. Wilson disease
Q27. A 28-year-old man develops ascending weakness beginning in the legs following an episode of gastroenteritis. Examination reveals areflexia with preserved sensation. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Myasthenia gravis
B. Multiple sclerosis
C. Transverse myelitis
D. Guillain-Barré syndrome
Q28. A 65-year-old smoker presents with chronic cough, hemoptysis, and weight loss. Chest imaging reveals a hilar mass with associated hypercalcemia. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Adenocarcinoma lung
B. Small cell carcinoma
C. Squamous cell carcinoma lung
D. Carcinoid tumor
Q29. A 25-year-old woman presents with episodic palpitations, sweating, headache, and paroxysmal hypertension. Urinary metanephrines are elevated. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Pheochromocytoma
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Panic disorder
D. Essential hypertension | 1 247 |
| 10 | Q1. A 58-year-old man with long-standing hypertension presents with crushing retrosternal chest pain radiating to the left arm for 2 hours. ECG shows ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Troponin-I is positive. Which coronary artery is most likely involved?
A. Left anterior descending artery
B. Right coronary artery
C. Left circumflex artery
D. Left main coronary artery
Q2. A 28-year-old woman presents with heat intolerance, weight loss despite increased appetite, palpitations, and tremors. Examination reveals diffuse goiter and exophthalmos. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Graves disease
B. Toxic multinodular goiter
C. Hashimoto thyroiditis
D. Subacute thyroiditis
Q3. A 68-year-old smoker presents with chronic cough and progressive breathlessness. Spirometry shows FEV1/FVC ratio of 55% with minimal reversibility after bronchodilator therapy. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Bronchial asthma
B. Bronchiectasis
C. COPD
D. Interstitial lung disease
Q4. A 25-year-old woman presents with malar rash, photosensitivity, oral ulcers, and proteinuria. ANA and anti-dsDNA antibodies are positive. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Dermatomyositis
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Systemic sclerosis
D. Systemic lupus erythematosus
Q5. A 52-year-old man presents with severe epigastric pain radiating to the back associated with vomiting. Serum amylase and lipase are markedly elevated. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Acute cholecystitis
B. Perforated peptic ulcer
C. Acute pancreatitis
D. Mesenteric ischemia
Q6. A 32-year-old woman presents with fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice. Laboratory evaluation reveals elevated alkaline phosphatase and positive antimitochondrial antibodies. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Primary biliary cholangitis
B. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
C. Autoimmune hepatitis
D. Wilson disease
Q7. A 60-year-old man presents with progressive dysphagia initially to solids and later to liquids along with significant weight loss. Endoscopy reveals an irregular lower esophageal mass. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Achalasia cardia
B. Diffuse esophageal spasm
C. Peptic stricture
D. Esophageal carcinoma
Q8. A 24-year-old woman presents with episodic wheezing, chest tightness, and cough that worsens at night and improves with bronchodilators. Spirometry shows reversible airflow obstruction. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. COPD
B. Bronchial asthma
C. Bronchiectasis
D. Pulmonary fibrosis
Q9. A 50-year-old diabetic patient presents with fever, productive cough, and pleuritic chest pain. Chest X-ray reveals right lower lobe consolidation with air bronchograms. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Pulmonary edema
B. Tuberculosis
C. Community-acquired pneumonia
D. Lung abscess
Q10. A 62-year-old chronic smoker presents with hematuria without pain or dysuria. Imaging reveals a bladder mass. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Renal cell carcinoma
B. Ureteric calculus
C. Benign prostatic hyperplasia
D. Transitional cell carcinoma of bladder
Q11. A 30-year-old woman presents with fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance, and constipation. Laboratory evaluation shows elevated TSH with low free T4. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Primary hypothyroidism
B. Secondary hypothyroidism
C. Subclinical hyperthyroidism
D. Thyroid hormone resistance
Q12. A 65-year-old man presents with resting tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia, and shuffling gait. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Essential tremor
B. Parkinson disease
C. Huntington disease
D. Wilson disease
Q13. A 55-year-old alcoholic presents with confusion, ascites, jaundice, and spider angiomas. Ultrasound shows a shrunken nodular liver. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Acute hepatitis
B. Budd-Chiari syndrome
C. Fatty liver disease
D. Liver cirrhosis
Q14. A 40-year-old man presents with recurrent episodes of severe pain and swelling of the first metatarsophalangeal joint. Joint aspiration reveals needle-shaped negatively birefringent crystals. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Septic arthritis
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Gout
D. Pseudogout | 862 |
| 11 | Today questions on Medicine ✅👇 | 825 |
| 12 | Let your presence be a Blessing to those around you.
Leave behind words and actions that inspire Hope in every Heart.
Your kindness may become the Beautiful turning point in someone's Life.
Wherever you go, spread Love, peace, and Light. Share joy. Stay Grateful. | 1 063 |
| 13 | Your score? | 1 174 |
| 14 | Q1. B — Acute otitis media commonly follows URTI and presents with a congested, bulging tympanic membrane.
Q2. A — Malignant otitis externa is usually caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa, especially in diabetics.
Q3. C — Ménière disease presents with the triad of episodic vertigo, tinnitus, and fluctuating hearing loss.
Q4. D — Attic perforation with keratin debris is characteristic of cholesteatoma, which causes bone erosion.
Q5. C — BPPV causes brief positional vertigo with positive Dix-Hallpike test due to canalithiasis.
Q6. A — Otosclerosis causes progressive conductive hearing loss with Carhart notch at 2000 Hz.
Q7. D — Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma is a vascular tumor causing epistaxis in adolescent males.
Q8. B — Lateral nasopharyngeal X-ray is a common screening investigation for adenoid hypertrophy.
Q9. C — Seasonal sneezing, itching, and watery rhinorrhea are classical features of allergic rhinitis.
Q10. D — Maxillary sinus is the most frequently involved sinus in acute sinusitis.
Q11. A — Little's area (Kiesselbach plexus) is the commonest site of anterior epistaxis.
Q12. B — Unilateral foul-smelling discharge in a child strongly suggests nasal foreign body.
Q13. D — Persistent hoarseness in smokers should raise suspicion of laryngeal carcinoma.
Q14. C — Vocal nodules occur at the junction of anterior one-third and posterior two-thirds of vocal cords.
Q15. B — Acute laryngotracheobronchitis (croup) causes barking cough and inspiratory stridor.
Q16. D — Epiglottitis presents with fever, drooling, tripod position, and airway emergency.
Q17. A — Hypoglossal nerve injury causes tongue deviation toward the side of lesion.
Q18. C — Peritonsillar abscess presents with uvular deviation and characteristic hot potato voice.
Q19. D — The facial nerve traverses the fallopian canal and may be affected by cholesteatoma.
Q20. A — Negative Rinne with Weber lateralizing to affected ear indicates conductive hearing loss.
Q21. B — Acoustic neuroma causes unilateral SNHL and cerebellopontine angle mass.
Q22. C — Thyroglossal cyst moves with tongue protrusion due to attachment to the tract.
Q23. D — Orbital cellulitis is the commonest serious orbital complication of sinusitis.
Q24. A — Presbycusis is age-related bilateral high-frequency sensorineural hearing loss.
Q25. C — Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma arises near the sphenopalatine foramen and bleeds easily.
Q26. B — Stensen's duct drains the parotid gland and may be obstructed by stones.
Q27. D — Unilateral blood-stained nasal discharge with mass should be considered malignant until excluded.
Q28. C — Leukoplakia is a premalignant white patch that cannot be scraped off.
Q29. A — Spinal accessory nerve injury causes shoulder droop and inability to shrug shoulder.
Q30. B — Presbycusis results from degeneration of cochlear hair cells causing SNHL. | 1 198 |
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| 17 | Q30. A patient presents with bilateral progressive hearing loss due to degeneration of hair cells in the organ of Corti. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Otosclerosis
B. Presbycusis
C. Otitis media
D. Tympanosclerosis | 1 053 |
| 18 | Q15. A child develops barking cough, inspiratory stridor, and hoarseness following a viral upper respiratory infection. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Acute epiglottitis
B. Acute laryngotracheobronchitis
C. Diphtheria
D. Retropharyngeal abscess
Q16. A 4-year-old child presents with high fever, drooling, dysphagia, and sitting in tripod position. Which diagnosis should be considered first?
A. Croup
B. Peritonsillar abscess
C. Retropharyngeal abscess
D. Acute epiglottitis
Q17. A patient develops deviation of tongue to the right side on protrusion following neck surgery. Which cranial nerve has been injured?
A. Hypoglossal nerve
B. Glossopharyngeal nerve
C. Vagus nerve
D. Facial nerve
Q18. A patient presents with severe sore throat, muffled "hot potato" voice, and uvular deviation to the opposite side. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Acute tonsillitis
B. Retropharyngeal abscess
C. Peritonsillar abscess
D. Ludwig angina
Q19. A patient develops facial nerve palsy following chronic ear disease with cholesteatoma. Through which part of temporal bone does the facial nerve most commonly become involved?
A. Internal auditory canal
B. Mastoid cortex
C. Stylomastoid foramen
D. Fallopian canal
Q20. A patient with unilateral conductive hearing loss has Weber test lateralizing to the affected ear and Rinne test negative on the same side. Which type of hearing loss is present?
A. Conductive hearing loss
B. Sensorineural hearing loss
C. Mixed hearing loss
D. Central hearing loss
Q21. A patient presents with progressive unilateral sensorineural hearing loss and imbalance. MRI reveals a cerebellopontine angle tumor. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Meningioma
B. Acoustic neuroma
C. Cholesteatoma
D. Glomus jugulare tumor
Q22. A child develops recurrent painless swelling over the upper neck that increases during upper respiratory tract infections. The swelling moves with protrusion of tongue. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Branchial cyst
B. Dermoid cyst
C. Thyroglossal cyst
D. Cystic hygroma
Q23. A patient with chronic rhinosinusitis develops painful swelling near the medial canthus with displacement of the eyeball. Which sinus complication is most likely?
A. Cavernous sinus thrombosis
B. Meningitis
C. Orbital cellulitis
D. Brain abscess
Q24. A patient complains of inability to perceive high-frequency sounds with advancing age. Audiometry confirms bilateral symmetrical sensorineural hearing loss. What is the diagnosis?
A. Presbycusis
B. Otosclerosis
C. Noise-induced hearing loss
D. Ménière disease
Q25. A young adult develops recurrent episodes of bleeding from the nose and nasal obstruction. Endoscopy reveals a highly vascular mass arising near the sphenopalatine foramen. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Inverted papilloma
B. Ethmoidal polyp
C. Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma
D. Hemangioma
Q26. A patient presents with painful swelling of the parotid gland during meals. Imaging reveals a radio-opaque stone within the duct. Which duct is involved?
A. Wharton's duct
B. Stensen's duct
C. Rivinus duct
D. Bartholin duct
Q27. A patient presents with unilateral nasal obstruction and blood-stained nasal discharge. Examination reveals a friable mass in the nasal cavity. Which diagnosis should be considered until proven otherwise?
A. Antrochoanal polyp
B. Allergic polyp
C. Deviated nasal septum
D. Malignancy of nose and paranasal sinus
Q28. A patient with chronic smoking history presents with persistent white patch over the vocal cord that cannot be scraped off. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Oral candidiasis
B. Aphthous ulcer
C. Leukoplakia
D. Lichen planus
Q29. A patient develops inability to shrug the shoulder and difficulty turning the head after lymph node biopsy in the posterior triangle of neck. Which nerve is injured?
A. Spinal accessory nerve
B. Hypoglossal nerve
C. Vagus nerve
D. Facial nerve | 1 081 |
| 19 | Q1. A 5-year-old child presents with fever, ear pain, and irritability for 2 days following an upper respiratory tract infection. Otoscopy reveals a congested, bulging tympanic membrane with loss of landmarks. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Otitis externa
B. Acute otitis media
C. Serous otitis media
D. Chronic suppurative otitis media
Q2. A 45-year-old diabetic man presents with severe otalgia disproportionate to examination findings and purulent ear discharge. Granulation tissue is seen at the bony-cartilaginous junction of the external auditory canal. Which organism is most commonly responsible?
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Klebsiella pneumoniae
Q3. A 22-year-old woman presents with episodic vertigo lasting several hours associated with tinnitus and fluctuating hearing loss. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Vestibular neuritis
B. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
C. Ménière disease
D. Acoustic neuroma
Q4. A patient presents with foul-smelling ear discharge and hearing loss for many years. Examination reveals an attic perforation with keratin debris. Which complication is most commonly associated?
A. Tympanosclerosis
B. Otosclerosis
C. Serous labyrinthitis
D. Cholesteatoma
Q5. A patient complains of sudden onset severe spinning sensation lasting less than one minute on turning in bed. Dix-Hallpike test reproduces symptoms and nystagmus. What is the diagnosis?
A. Labyrinthitis
B. Ménière disease
C. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
D. Vestibular migraine
Q6. A young woman presents with progressive conductive hearing loss and normal tympanic membrane examination. Pure tone audiometry shows Carhart notch at 2000 Hz. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Otosclerosis
B. Cholesteatoma
C. Glue ear
D. Presbycusis
Q7. A child presents with nasal obstruction and recurrent episodes of epistaxis. Examination reveals a reddish mass in the nasopharynx that bleeds on touch. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Nasal polyp
B. Antrochoanal polyp
C. Inverted papilloma
D. Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma
Q8. A 10-year-old child presents with mouth breathing, snoring, and recurrent ear infections. Examination suggests enlarged adenoids. Which investigation is most useful for confirmation?
A. CT scan paranasal sinuses
B. X-ray nasopharynx lateral view
C. MRI neck
D. Tympanometry
Q9. A patient presents with recurrent sneezing, watery rhinorrhea, and nasal itching, especially during spring season. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Acute sinusitis
B. Vasomotor rhinitis
C. Allergic rhinitis
D. Atrophic rhinitis
Q10. A 35-year-old man develops severe facial pain, purulent nasal discharge, and fever following an upper respiratory infection. Which sinus is most commonly involved in acute sinusitis?
A. Frontal sinus
B. Sphenoid sinus
C. Ethmoid sinus
D. Maxillary sinus
Q11. A patient presents with recurrent spontaneous epistaxis from the anterior part of the nasal septum. Which area is most commonly involved?
A. Little's area
B. Woodruff plexus
C. Rosenmüller fossa
D. Fossa of Killian
Q12. A child presents with unilateral foul-smelling nasal discharge and nasal obstruction for several weeks. Which diagnosis should be suspected first?
A. Nasal polyp
B. Nasal foreign body
C. Allergic rhinitis
D. Adenoid hypertrophy
Q13. A 50-year-old smoker presents with persistent hoarseness for 3 months. Indirect laryngoscopy reveals an ulceroproliferative lesion involving the vocal cord. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Vocal nodule
B. Laryngeal papilloma
C. Chronic laryngitis
D. Carcinoma larynx
Q14. A school teacher presents with progressive hoarseness without pain or dysphagia. Laryngoscopy reveals bilateral symmetrical swellings at the junction of anterior one-third and posterior two-thirds of the vocal cords. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Vocal cord polyp
B. Reinke edema
C. Vocal nodules
D. Laryngeal carcinoma | 930 |
| 20 | Today questions on ENT✅👇 | 912 |
