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невідомо sanasidan buyon loyiha tez o‘sib, 21 863 obunachiga ega bo‘ldi.

22 Iyul, 2026 dagi oxirgi ma’lumotlarga ko‘ra kanal barqaror faollikka ega. Oxirgi 30 kunda obunachilar soni 778 ga, so‘nggi 24 soatda esa 21 ga o‘zgardi va umumiy qamrov yuqori darajada qolmoqda.

Tasdiqlash holati: Tasdiqlanmagan
Jalb etish (ER): Auditoriya o‘rtacha 9.88% darajada jalb etiladi. Nashrdan keyingi dastlabki 24 soatda kontent odatda umumiy obunachilar sonining 4.53% ini tashkil etuvchi reaksiyalarni to‘playdi.
Post qamrovi: Har bir post o‘rtacha 2 160 marta ko‘riladi; birinchi sutkada odatda 990 ta ko‘rish yig‘iladi.
Reaksiyalar va o‘zaro ta’sir: Auditoriya faol: har bir postga o‘rtacha 5 ta reaksiya keladi.
Tematik yo‘nalishlar: Kontent patient, nerve, disease, deficiency, cell kabi asosiy mavzularga jamlangan.

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2	Q1. B — Visibility of soft palate and uvula but not tonsillar pillars corresponds to Mallampati Grade II. Q2. A — Hyperthermia, rigidity, rising ETCO₂, and tachycardia after succinylcholine suggest malignant hyperthermia. Q3. C — Spinal anesthesia causes sympathetic blockade leading to vasodilation and hypotension. Q4. D — Wheezing with increased airway pressure immediately after intubation is typical of bronchospasm. Q5. C — Circumoral numbness, tinnitus, and seizures are classic early signs of local anesthetic toxicity. Q6. A — Propofol formulation contains egg lecithin and soybean oil and may raise concern in allergy history. Q7. D — Cricoid pressure applied during RSI is called the Sellick maneuver. Q8. B — Spinal anesthesia involves injection into the subarachnoid space containing CSF. Q9. C — Naloxone is the opioid antagonist used to reverse respiratory depression. Q10. D — Masseter spasm after succinylcholine is an early sign of malignant hyperthermia. Q11. A — ASA III denotes severe systemic disease with functional limitation. Q12. B — Sudden hypotension, bronchospasm, and urticaria indicate anaphylaxis. Q13. D — Visualization of epiglottis only corresponds to Cormack-Lehane Grade III. Q14. C — Perioperative hypothermia can lead to coagulation abnormalities and increased bleeding. Q15. B — Pseudocholinesterase deficiency causes prolonged succinylcholine action and apnea. Q16. D — Post-dural puncture headache results from CSF leakage after dural puncture. Q17. A — Ketamine provides bronchodilation and is preferred in severe asthma. Q18. C — Capnography is the gold standard for confirming tracheal intubation. Q19. D — Pneumothorax is a known complication of subclavian central venous access. Q20. A — Sellick maneuver reduces passive regurgitation during rapid sequence induction. Q21. B — Flumazenil reverses benzodiazepine-induced sedation and respiratory depression. Q22. C — Rising ETCO₂ with hyperthermia and tachycardia strongly suggests malignant hyperthermia. Q23. D — Total spinal anesthesia can cause severe cardiovascular and respiratory compromise. Q24. A — Etomidate causes minimal cardiovascular depression and is preferred in unstable patients. Q25. C — Nitrous oxide diffuses rapidly into closed air spaces causing expansion. Q26. B — Pethidine is highly effective for postoperative shivering. Q27. D — Inspiratory stridor after extubation is characteristic of laryngospasm. Q28. C — Head-end elevation reduces aspiration and ventilator-associated pneumonia risk. Q29. A — Bilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy causing obstruction requires urgent reintubation. Q30. B — Neostigmine with glycopyrrolate is commonly used to reverse non-depolarizing blockade.	179
3	Answers will be available at 5 pm today ✅👇	485
4	Q17. A patient with severe asthma requires induction of anesthesia. Which intravenous induction agent provides bronchodilation and is preferred? A. Ketamine B. Propofol C. Thiopentone D. Etomidate Q18. A patient under anesthesia develops sudden fall in oxygen saturation with absent end-tidal CO₂ waveform due to accidental esophageal intubation. Which monitoring method confirms the diagnosis most rapidly? A. Pulse oximetry B. Chest auscultation C. Capnography D. ECG monitoring Q19. During central venous catheter insertion through the subclavian route, the patient develops sudden respiratory distress and reduced breath sounds on one side. Which complication is most likely? A. Hemothorax B. Air embolism C. Cardiac tamponade D. Pneumothorax Q20. A patient undergoing emergency laparotomy is considered at high risk of aspiration. Which maneuver helps reduce aspiration risk during intubation? A. Sellick maneuver B. Trendelenburg position C. Valsalva maneuver D. Head tilt maneuver Q21. A patient develops agitation, confusion, and respiratory depression after receiving excessive midazolam. Which antidote should be administered? A. Naloxone B. Flumazenil C. Atropine D. Neostigmine Q22. During general anesthesia, monitoring shows end-tidal CO₂ progressively rising despite adequate ventilation. The patient also develops tachycardia and hyperthermia. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Thyroid storm B. Sepsis C. Malignant hyperthermia D. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome Q23. A patient undergoing surgery receives an excessively high spinal block and develops hypotension, bradycardia, and respiratory distress. Which is the most likely explanation? A. Pulmonary embolism B. Anaphylaxis C. Hypovolemia D. Total spinal anesthesia Q24. A patient with severe cardiac dysfunction requires induction of anesthesia with minimal cardiovascular depression. Which agent is preferred? A. Etomidate B. Propofol C. Thiopentone D. Ketamine Q25. A patient receiving nitrous oxide anesthesia undergoes middle ear surgery. Which property makes nitrous oxide relatively contraindicated? A. Hepatotoxicity B. Nephrotoxicity C. Expansion of closed air spaces D. Severe myocardial depression Q26. A patient develops severe postoperative shivering after general anesthesia. Which drug is commonly used to treat this condition? A. Tramadol B. Pethidine C. Morphine D. Fentanyl Q27. During extubation, a patient develops inspiratory stridor and paradoxical chest movements. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Bronchospasm B. Pulmonary edema C. Aspiration pneumonitis D. Laryngospasm Q28. A patient undergoing prolonged mechanical ventilation develops ventilator-associated pneumonia. Which intervention most effectively reduces this risk? A. Routine antibiotic prophylaxis B. Daily chest radiographs C. Elevation of head end of bed D. High tidal volume ventilation Q29. A patient undergoing thyroid surgery develops bilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy and airway obstruction after extubation. What is the immediate management? A. Reintubation B. Nebulization C. Steroid administration D. Observation Q30. A patient develops severe muscle weakness after administration of a non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker at the end of surgery. Which drug combination is commonly used for reversal? A. Naloxone with atropine B. Neostigmine with glycopyrrolate C. Flumazenil with atropine D. Physostigmine with atropine	496
5	Q1. A 55-year-old man scheduled for elective cholecystectomy undergoes preoperative airway assessment. On opening his mouth and protruding the tongue, only the soft palate and uvula are visible while tonsillar pillars are not seen. Which Mallampati grade is this? A. Grade I B. Grade II C. Grade III D. Grade IV Q2. A 22-year-old man develops muscle rigidity, hyperthermia, tachycardia, and rising end-tidal CO₂ shortly after receiving succinylcholine and inhalational anesthesia. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Malignant hyperthermia B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome C. Serotonin syndrome D. Thyroid storm Q3. A patient undergoing spinal anesthesia suddenly develops hypotension and bradycardia immediately after the block is established. What is the most likely mechanism? A. Myocardial depression B. Hypovolemia C. Sympathetic blockade D. Vagal stimulation Q4. A 65-year-old patient undergoing surgery under general anesthesia suddenly develops wheezing, rising airway pressure, and reduced oxygen saturation after intubation. What is the most likely cause? A. Pulmonary edema B. Pneumothorax C. Aspiration D. Bronchospasm Q5. A patient receives local anesthetic infiltration and subsequently develops circumoral numbness, tinnitus, and seizures. Which complication is most likely? A. Methemoglobinemia B. Anaphylaxis C. Local anesthetic systemic toxicity D. Hypoglycemia Q6. A patient scheduled for surgery reports a history of egg allergy and previous reaction to an induction agent. Which intravenous induction agent is most commonly implicated? A. Propofol B. Ketamine C. Thiopentone D. Etomidate Q7. During rapid sequence induction in a trauma patient, cricoid pressure is applied. Which maneuver is being performed? A. Sellick maneuver B. Heimlich maneuver C. Valsalva maneuver D. Jaw thrust maneuver Q8. A 30-year-old woman undergoes cesarean section under spinal anesthesia. The anesthetist identifies cerebrospinal fluid flow before injecting the drug. Which anatomical space is entered? A. Epidural space B. Subarachnoid space C. Subdural space D. Extradural space Q9. A patient receiving opioid analgesia develops respiratory depression with pinpoint pupils. Which drug is the most appropriate antidote? A. Flumazenil B. Atropine C. Naloxone D. Physostigmine Q10. A patient under general anesthesia develops masseter spasm after administration of succinylcholine. Which serious condition should be suspected? A. Myasthenic crisis B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome C. Serotonin syndrome D. Malignant hyperthermia Q11. During preoperative assessment, a patient is found to have severe systemic disease causing functional limitation but not incapacitating. According to ASA grading, this patient belongs to: A. ASA III B. ASA II C. ASA IV D. ASA V Q12. A patient undergoing surgery suddenly develops severe hypotension, urticaria, and bronchospasm immediately after administration of an antibiotic. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Septic shock B. Anaphylaxis C. Vasovagal attack D. Pulmonary embolism Q13. During laryngoscopy, only the epiglottis is visible and no part of the glottis can be seen. Which Cormack-Lehane grade is this? A. Grade I B. Grade II C. Grade III D. Grade IV Q14. A patient undergoing prolonged surgery under general anesthesia develops a temperature of 34°C in the operating room. Which complication is most likely if untreated? A. Hyperkalemia B. Hyperglycemia C. Coagulopathy D. Hypertension Q15. A patient develops prolonged apnea after receiving succinylcholine during induction of anesthesia. Which enzyme deficiency is most likely responsible? A. Acetylcholinesterase deficiency B. Pseudocholinesterase deficiency C. Monoamine oxidase deficiency D. G6PD deficiency Q16. During epidural anesthesia, accidental puncture of dura occurs leading to severe headache after surgery. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Migraine B. Meningitis C. Intracranial hemorrhage D. Post-dural puncture headache	369
6	Today's questions on Anesthesia ✅👇	439
7	𝗜 𝗪𝗮𝗻𝘁 𝗔 𝗟𝗼𝘁. 𝗦𝗼 𝗜 𝗛𝗮𝘃𝗲 𝗧𝗼 𝗗𝗼 𝗔 𝗟𝗼𝘁. 𝗔 𝗟𝗼𝘁 𝗢𝗳 𝗣𝗿𝗮𝘆𝗶𝗻𝗴, 𝗪𝗼𝗿𝗸𝗶𝗻𝗴, 𝗠𝗮𝗻𝗶𝗳𝗲𝘀𝘁𝗮𝘁𝗶𝗼𝗻 𝗔𝗻𝗱 𝗖𝗼𝗻𝘀𝗶𝘀𝘁𝗲𝗻𝗰𝘆.	775
8	𝙎𝙥𝙚𝙘𝙞𝙖𝙡 𝙇𝙖𝙪𝙣𝙘𝙝 𝙊𝙛𝙛𝙚𝙧 🔥 𝙃𝙞𝙜𝙝-𝙔𝙞𝙚𝙡𝙙 𝙈𝙚𝙙𝙞𝙘𝙖𝙡 𝙄𝙢𝙖𝙜𝙚 𝘽𝙤𝙤𝙠 𝙁𝙤𝙧 𝙉𝙀𝙀𝙏-𝙋𝙂 \| 𝙁𝙈𝙂𝙀 \| 𝙄𝙉𝙄-𝘾𝙀𝙏 𝙏𝙤 𝙂𝙚𝙩- https://superprofile.bio/vp/neet-pg-fmge_Primium_Images ✅Any query - https://t.me/Drconcept	987
9	Your score?	854
10	Q1. B — Third-person auditory hallucinations with social decline and negative symptoms strongly suggest schizophrenia. Q2. A — Mania is characterized by elevated mood, grandiosity, and decreased need for sleep causing functional impairment. Q3. C — OCD involves intrusive obsessions and compulsions recognized as irrational by the patient. Q4. D — Panic disorder presents with sudden unexpected panic attacks peaking within minutes. Q5. C — Delusion of reference involves false belief that neutral events carry special personal meaning. Q6. A — Major depressive disorder requires depressed mood or anhedonia lasting at least two weeks with functional impairment. Q7. D — Thought withdrawal is the belief that thoughts are being removed by external forces. Q8. B — Excessive uncontrollable worry for over six months is diagnostic of GAD. Q9. C — Bulimia nervosa involves binge eating with compensatory behaviors and usually normal BMI. Q10. D — Running commentary hallucination is a first-rank symptom of schizophrenia. Q11. A — Alzheimer disease initially affects recent memory and progressively impairs functioning. Q12. B — Social anxiety disorder involves fear of embarrassment in social or performance situations. Q13. D — Delirium causes acute fluctuating consciousness and attention deficits due to medical illness. Q14. C — Anorexia nervosa features body image distortion and severe restriction of intake. Q15. B — Contamination obsessions with washing compulsions are classic for OCD. Q16. D — Persistent depressive disorder requires chronic low mood lasting more than two years. Q17. A — ECT provides rapid improvement in severe depression with suicidality or refusal to eat. Q18. C — Multiple medically unexplained symptoms involving different systems suggest somatic symptom disorder. Q19. D — Capgras syndrome is the belief that familiar individuals have been replaced by imposters. Q20. A — NMS presents with fever, rigidity, autonomic instability, and raised CK after antipsychotics. Q21. B — Dementia with Lewy bodies presents with hallucinations, parkinsonism, and cognitive fluctuations. Q22. C — Conversion disorder presents with neurological symptoms inconsistent with known disease. Q23. D — Voices discussing the patient in third person are classic first-rank symptoms. Q24. A — Trichotillomania involves recurrent hair pulling with relief after the act. Q25. C — Nihilistic delusion involves belief that one is dead or organs no longer exist. Q26. B — Narcolepsy causes daytime sleep attacks and cataplexy. Q27. D — Mania causes severe functional impairment and often requires hospitalization. Q28. C — Illness anxiety disorder involves persistent fear of serious illness despite reassurance. Q29. A — Lithium commonly causes tremor, hypothyroidism, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Q30. B — Binge eating disorder lacks compensatory purging behaviors and often leads to obesity.	855
11	🔥New update PSM Share with friends👇(for more) https://whatsapp.com/channel/0029Va6AT0Y2v1IqAGrRiU2W	740
12	Answers will be available at 5 pm today ✅👇	877
13	Q15. A 27-year-old man reports recurrent intrusive thoughts of contamination and washes his hands more than 50 times daily. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Illness anxiety disorder B. Obsessive compulsive disorder C. Delusional disorder D. Panic disorder Q16. A patient presents with persistent low mood for more than 2 years without meeting criteria for major depressive episodes. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Cyclothymia B. Adjustment disorder C. Bipolar disorder D. Persistent depressive disorder Q17. A patient with severe depression develops refusal to eat, suicidal ideas, and psychomotor retardation. Which treatment provides the fastest response? A. Electroconvulsive therapy B. Fluoxetine C. Cognitive behavioral therapy D. Lithium Q18. A 35-year-old woman presents with multiple unexplained physical complaints involving gastrointestinal, neurological, and pain symptoms over many years. Extensive evaluation remains normal. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Illness anxiety disorder B. Conversion disorder C. Somatic symptom disorder D. Factitious disorder Q19. A patient insists that his spouse is being replaced by an identical-looking imposter. Which syndrome is being described? A. Cotard syndrome B. Othello syndrome C. Fregoli syndrome D. Capgras syndrome Q20. A patient with schizophrenia develops fever, rigidity, autonomic instability, and elevated creatine kinase after starting antipsychotic therapy. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome B. Serotonin syndrome C. Malignant hyperthermia D. Acute dystonia Q21. A 70-year-old woman develops visual hallucinations, fluctuating cognition, and parkinsonian features. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Alzheimer disease B. Dementia with Lewy bodies C. Vascular dementia D. Frontotemporal dementia Q22. A young woman suddenly develops inability to move her legs after an emotional conflict. Neurological examination and investigations are normal. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Factitious disorder B. Malingering C. Conversion disorder D. Somatic symptom disorder Q23. A patient reports hearing voices arguing with each other inside his head. Which first-rank symptom of schizophrenia is this? A. Thought insertion B. Thought withdrawal C. Running commentary D. Third-person auditory hallucinations Q24. A patient repeatedly pulls out hair from the scalp resulting in patchy alopecia and experiences relief afterward. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Trichotillomania B. OCD C. Body dysmorphic disorder D. Delusional disorder Q25. A patient believes that his internal organs have stopped functioning and that he is already dead. Which delusion is being described? A. Persecutory delusion B. Delusion of reference C. Nihilistic delusion D. Grandiose delusion Q26. A patient develops recurrent episodes of irresistible daytime sleep attacks associated with cataplexy. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Obstructive sleep apnea B. Narcolepsy C. Insomnia disorder D. REM sleep behavior disorder Q27. A 26-year-old woman presents with elevated mood, increased talkativeness, and increased goal-directed activity requiring hospitalization due to impairment in functioning. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Cyclothymia B. Personality disorder C. Hypomania D. Mania Q28. A patient becomes convinced that he has colon cancer despite repeated normal investigations and reassurance. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Somatic symptom disorder B. OCD C. Illness anxiety disorder D. Delusional disorder Q29. A patient with bipolar disorder develops tremor, polyuria, and hypothyroidism during treatment. Which drug is most likely responsible? A. Lithium B. Valproate C. Carbamazepine D. Lamotrigine Q30. A patient presents with episodes of binge eating without compensatory behaviors and develops obesity over time. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Bulimia nervosa B. Binge eating disorder C. Anorexia nervosa D. Major depressive disorder	900
14	Q1. A 23-year-old man is brought by family with a 6-month history of hearing voices commenting on his actions and discussing him in third person. He has social withdrawal and poor self-care. There is no history of mood symptoms or substance abuse. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Bipolar disorder B. Schizophrenia C. Delusional disorder D. Schizoaffective disorder Q2. A 30-year-old woman presents with elevated mood, decreased need for sleep, excessive spending, and grandiose ideas for the past 10 days. She remains highly energetic despite sleeping only 2 hours daily. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Cyclothymia B. Mania C. Hypomania D. Schizophrenia Q3. A 45-year-old businessman repeatedly checks whether doors are locked despite knowing they are already locked. He recognizes these thoughts as irrational but cannot resist them. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Generalized anxiety disorder B. Delusional disorder C. Obsessive compulsive disorder D. Schizotypal personality disorder Q4. A 22-year-old woman presents with episodes of intense fear associated with palpitations, sweating, tremors, and fear of dying. Symptoms peak within minutes and occur unexpectedly. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Generalized anxiety disorder B. Social anxiety disorder C. Adjustment disorder D. Panic disorder Q5. A 28-year-old man believes that television news anchors are sending him secret messages directed specifically toward him. Which psychopathological phenomenon is being described? A. Thought insertion B. Delusion of persecution C. Delusion of reference D. Nihilistic delusion Q6. A 35-year-old woman develops persistent sadness, loss of interest, early morning awakening, and feelings of worthlessness for 3 months. She has no history of mania. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Persistent depressive disorder B. Major depressive disorder C. Bipolar depression D. Cyclothymia Q7. A patient claims that his thoughts are being removed from his mind by an external force. Which first-rank symptom of schizophrenia is this? A. Thought broadcasting B. Thought insertion C. Delusion of control D. Thought withdrawal Q8. A 40-year-old teacher experiences excessive anxiety and worry regarding finances, health, and family matters for more than 6 months. She finds it difficult to control her worries. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Panic disorder B. Generalized anxiety disorder C. OCD D. Adjustment disorder Q9. A 25-year-old woman presents with recurrent binge eating episodes followed by self-induced vomiting to avoid weight gain. Her BMI is normal. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Anorexia nervosa B. Binge eating disorder C. Bulimia nervosa D. Depression Q10. A patient repeatedly hears a voice narrating his actions as he performs them. Which first-rank symptom of schizophrenia is present? A. Thought echo B. Thought broadcasting C. Delusion of control D. Running commentary hallucination Q11. A 60-year-old man develops progressive memory impairment affecting recent events while remote memories are relatively preserved. He struggles with daily activities. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Alzheimer disease B. Vascular dementia C. Frontotemporal dementia D. Delirium Q12. A 24-year-old medical student experiences severe fear while speaking in seminars and avoids presentations despite good academic performance. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Panic disorder B. Social anxiety disorder C. Agoraphobia D. Specific phobia Q13. A patient develops confusion, fluctuating consciousness, and visual hallucinations following severe pneumonia and sepsis. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Dementia B. Schizophrenia C. Depression D. Delirium Q14. A 19-year-old girl presents with low body weight, intense fear of gaining weight, and distorted body image despite appearing extremely thin. Which diagnosis is most likely? A. Bulimia nervosa B. Major depression C. Anorexia nervosa D. Body dysmorphic disorder	858
15	Today's questions on Psychiatry ✅👇	772
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17	✅UPSC CMS Admit card available now	1 393
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19	Q1. B — Nocturnal pruritus with burrows in interdigital spaces and affected family members strongly suggests scabies. Q2. A — Vitiligo presents with sharply demarcated depigmented macules showing accentuation under Wood's lamp. Q3. C — Silvery scales and Auspitz sign (pinpoint bleeding) are classic features of psoriasis. Q4. D — Pemphigus vulgaris causes flaccid bullae, oral ulcers, positive Nikolsky sign, and acantholysis. Q5. C — Presence of comedones along with papules and pustules is diagnostic of acne vulgaris. Q6. A — Carbuncle is a deep staphylococcal infection involving multiple hair follicles, common in diabetics. Q7. D — Honey-colored crusts around the mouth are characteristic of impetigo. Q8. B — The six Ps of lichen planus include pruritic, polygonal, purple, planar papules and plaques. Q9. C — Annular lesions with central clearing and positive KOH indicate dermatophytosis. Q10. D — Target lesions with preceding HSV infection are typical of erythema multiforme. Q11. A — Tuberculoid leprosy shows few anesthetic lesions with nerve involvement and negative smear. Q12. B — Bullous pemphigoid presents with tense bullae and negative Nikolsky sign. Q13. D — Erythroderma refers to generalized erythema and scaling involving more than 90% BSA. Q14. C — Melasma presents as symmetrical facial hyperpigmentation, often triggered by pregnancy and sunlight. Q15. B — Recurrent grouped vesicles over lips are characteristic of herpes simplex labialis. Q16. D — Toxic epidermal necrolysis causes extensive epidermal detachment, usually drug-induced. Q17. A — Granulomas with few bacilli and nerve thickening indicate tuberculoid leprosy. Q18. C — Telogen effluvium causes diffuse non-scarring hair loss following physiological stress. Q19. D — Molluscum contagiosum causes umbilicated pearly papules due to poxvirus infection. Q20. A — Erythema nodosum presents as painful tender nodules over the shins. Q21. B — Basal cell carcinoma is a pearly lesion with telangiectasia and peripheral palisading histology. Q22. C — Hidradenitis suppurativa affects apocrine areas causing abscesses and sinus tracts. Q23. D — Dermatomal painful vesicles are characteristic of herpes zoster. Q24. A — Pityriasis alba causes hypopigmented facial patches with fine scaling in children. Q25. C — Vitiligo is characterized by complete melanocyte loss leading to depigmentation. Q26. B — Recurrent oral and genital ulcers with uveitis are typical of Behçet disease. Q27. D — Saw-tooth infiltrate at dermoepidermal junction is a hallmark of lichen planus. Q28. C — Urticaria causes transient pruritic wheals due to mast cell degranulation. Q29. A — Numerous acid-fast bacilli in globi formation indicate lepromatous leprosy. Q30. B — Greasy scales over seborrheic areas are characteristic of seborrheic dermatitis.	1 456
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