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منشورات القناة
Q17. A 30-year-old man presents with sharply demarcated depigmented patches associated with autoimmune thyroid disease.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Vitiligo
B. Albinism
C. Tinea versicolor
D. Pityriasis alba
Q18. A 25-year-old woman complains of recurrent transient itchy wheals over the body that disappear within 24 hours.
What is the diagnosis?
A. Eczema
B. Contact dermatitis
C. Urticaria
D. Psoriasis
Q19. A patient presents with painful erythematous nodules over the anterior aspect of legs. The lesions are tender and associated with fever.
What is the diagnosis?
A. Erythema multiforme
B. Vasculitis
C. Cellulitis
D. Erythema nodosum
Q20. A 15-year-old boy presents with patchy hair loss over the scalp. The lesions are smooth and non-scarring.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Alopecia areata
B. Tinea capitis
C. Trichotillomania
D. Androgenetic alopecia
Q21. A 50-year-old woman develops itchy lesions confined to areas exposed to nickel jewelry. Patch testing is planned.
What is the diagnosis?
A. Irritant contact dermatitis
B. Allergic contact dermatitis
C. Atopic dermatitis
D. Seborrheic dermatitis
Q22. A patient with celiac disease presents with grouped pruritic vesicles over the elbows and knees.
What is the diagnosis?
A. Pemphigus vulgaris
B. Bullous pemphigoid
C. Dermatitis herpetiformis
D. Linear IgA disease
Q23. A young adult presents with fever and rapidly spreading painful erythematous swelling of the leg with raised borders.
What is the diagnosis?
A. Cellulitis
B. Impetigo
C. Necrotizing fasciitis
D. Erysipelas
Q24. A 45-year-old woman presents with butterfly rash over the face sparing the nasolabial folds. She also complains of joint pains.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Systemic lupus erythematosus
B. Rosacea
C. Seborrheic dermatitis
D. Dermatomyositis
Q25. A patient presents with multiple itchy violaceous flat-topped papules over wrists. Histology reveals saw-tooth lymphocytic infiltrate.
What is the diagnosis?
A. Psoriasis
B. Pityriasis rosea
C. Lichen planus
D. Eczema
Q26. A 3-year-old child presents with intensely pruritic papulovesicular lesions over the scalp. Nits are seen attached to hair shafts.
What is the diagnosis?
A. Scabies
B. Pediculosis capitis
C. Impetigo
D. Tinea capitis
Q27. A patient on carbamazepine develops fever, mucosal erosions, and epidermal detachment involving 15% BSA.
What is the diagnosis?
A. TEN
B. Pemphigus vulgaris
C. Bullous pemphigoid
D. Stevens-Johnson syndrome
Q28. A middle-aged man presents with greasy scales over the scalp and nasolabial folds. Symptoms worsen during stress.
What is the diagnosis?
A. Psoriasis
B. Atopic dermatitis
C. Seborrheic dermatitis
D. Tinea faciei
Q29. A patient presents with decreased sensation over skin lesions and thickened ulnar nerve. Slit-skin smear reveals acid-fast bacilli.
What is the diagnosis?
A. Leprosy
B. Vitiligo
C. Psoriasis
D. Tinea corporis
Q30. A 32-year-old woman presents with itchy flexural eczema associated with a history of asthma since childhood.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Contact dermatitis
B. Atopic dermatitis
C. Seborrheic dermatitis
D. Psoriasis
| 2 | Q1. A 24-year-old man presents with multiple erythematous plaques covered by silvery scales over the extensor surfaces of elbows and knees. On scraping the lesion, pinpoint bleeding is noted. There is no mucosal involvement.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Lichen planus
B. Psoriasis vulgaris
C. Tinea corporis
D. Pityriasis rosea
Q2. A 30-year-old woman presents with depigmented macules over the face and hands for 2 years. The lesions are sharply demarcated and accentuate under Wood's lamp examination.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Vitiligo
B. Tinea versicolor
C. Leprosy
D. Pityriasis alba
Q3. A 20-year-old college student presents with severe itching over finger webs and wrists, worse at night. Similar symptoms are present in family members.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Atopic dermatitis
B. Pediculosis
C. Scabies
D. Contact dermatitis
Q4. A 45-year-old diabetic presents with painful grouped vesicles distributed along the right thoracic dermatome. The lesions do not cross the midline.
What is the diagnosis?
A. Herpes simplex
B. Impetigo
C. Chickenpox
D. Herpes zoster
Q5. A 35-year-old man presents with annular scaly plaques having central clearing over the trunk. KOH mount reveals septate branching hyphae.
What is the diagnosis?
A. Psoriasis
B. Eczema
C. Tinea corporis
D. Pityriasis rosea
Q6. A 12-year-old child presents with hypopigmented anesthetic patches over the arm. Examination reveals thickened peripheral nerves.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Hansen disease
B. Vitiligo
C. Tinea versicolor
D. Pityriasis alba
Q7. A 40-year-old woman presents with violaceous pruritic polygonal papules over the flexor surfaces. Oral examination reveals Wickham striae.
What is the diagnosis?
A. Psoriasis
B. Eczema
C. Pityriasis rosea
D. Lichen planus
Q8. A teenager presents with inflammatory papules, pustules, and comedones over the face. There are no nodules or cysts.
What is the first-line treatment for mild acne?
A. Oral isotretinoin
B. Topical retinoids
C. Oral steroids
D. Dapsone
Q9. A 28-year-old woman presents with photosensitivity, malar rash, and oral ulcers. ANA test is positive.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Dermatomyositis
B. Rosacea
C. Systemic lupus erythematosus
D. Seborrheic dermatitis
Q10. A patient develops widespread epidermal detachment involving more than 30% body surface area after starting sulfonamides. Nikolsky sign is positive.
What is the diagnosis?
A. Pemphigus vulgaris
B. Bullous pemphigoid
C. Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome
D. Toxic epidermal necrolysis
Q11. A 50-year-old farmer presents with a pearly papule with telangiectasia over the nose. The lesion slowly enlarges but rarely metastasizes.
What is the diagnosis?
A. Basal cell carcinoma
B. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Melanoma
D. Keratoacanthoma
Q12. A 7-year-old child presents with honey-colored crusted lesions around the mouth. There is no systemic illness.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Cellulitis
B. Impetigo contagiosa
C. Erysipelas
D. Scabies
Q13. A 60-year-old man presents with flaccid bullae involving the skin and oral mucosa. Nikolsky sign is positive.
What is the diagnosis?
A. Bullous pemphigoid
B. Dermatitis herpetiformis
C. Linear IgA disease
D. Pemphigus vulgaris
Q14. A 22-year-old man presents with multiple hypopigmented scaly macules over the upper trunk. KOH mount shows "spaghetti and meatballs" appearance.
What is the diagnosis?
A. Vitiligo
B. Leprosy
C. Pityriasis versicolor
D. Pityriasis alba
Q15. A 65-year-old woman presents with tense bullae over the trunk and extremities. Oral mucosa is spared and Nikolsky sign is negative.
What is the diagnosis?
A. Pemphigus vulgaris
B. Bullous pemphigoid
C. Dermatitis herpetiformis
D. TEN
Q16. A patient presents with target lesions over palms and soles following herpes simplex infection. Mucosal involvement is present.
What is the diagnosis?
A. Urticaria
B. Fixed drug eruption
C. Stevens-Johnson syndrome
D. Erythema multiforme | 1 |
| 3 | Today questions on Dermatology ✅👇 | 187 |
| 4 | We all have a past.
We all made choices that maybe weren't the best ones.
None of us are completely innocent, but we all get a fresh start everyday to be a better person than we were yesterday. | 693 |
| 5 | Your score? | 858 |
| 6 | Q1. B — Elderly patients with displaced intracapsular neck femur fractures are best managed with hemiarthroplasty for early mobilization.
Q2. A — Acute osteomyelitis presents with fever, bone pain, raised inflammatory markers, and early MRI changes.
Q3. C — Midshaft humeral fractures commonly injure the radial nerve, causing wrist drop.
Q4. D — Positive Lachman test is highly sensitive for ACL injury.
Q5. C — A DEXA T-score ≤ -2.5 confirms osteoporosis.
Q6. A — Perthes disease causes avascular necrosis of the femoral head in children aged 4–8 years.
Q7. D — Pain out of proportion and pain on passive stretch are hallmark features of compartment syndrome.
Q8. B — Swan neck deformity is a classic deformity seen in rheumatoid arthritis.
Q9. C — Sunburst appearance and Codman triangle are characteristic radiological features of osteosarcoma.
Q10. D — Scaphoid fractures have a high risk of avascular necrosis due to retrograde blood supply.
Q11. A — Vitamin D deficiency in children causes rickets with bow legs and raised ALP.
Q12. B — Needle-shaped negatively birefringent crystals are diagnostic of gout.
Q13. D — Suspected scaphoid fracture with normal X-ray should be immobilized in a thumb spica cast.
Q14. C — Paget disease presents with bone pain, deformity, and elevated ALP.
Q15. B — Positive Ortolani test indicates developmental dysplasia of the hip.
Q16. D — Delayed reduction of hip dislocation increases the risk of avascular necrosis.
Q17. A — SCFE typically occurs in obese adolescents with hip pain referred to the knee.
Q18. C — Inflammatory back pain with bamboo spine is characteristic of ankylosing spondylitis.
Q19. D — Charcot arthropathy occurs in diabetics due to neuropathy and repeated trauma.
Q20. A — Lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) causes pain over the lateral epicondyle.
Q21. B — Common peroneal nerve injury at the fibular neck causes foot drop.
Q22. C — Osteoarthritis presents with activity-related pain and osteophyte formation.
Q23. D — Supracondylar fracture can compromise circulation causing Volkmann ischemic contracture.
Q24. A — Bisphosphonates are first-line drugs for osteoporosis management.
Q25. C — Pott spine (spinal TB) classically involves adjacent vertebrae with disc space narrowing.
Q26. B — Osgood-Schlatter disease causes pain and tenderness over the tibial tuberosity.
Q27. D — Fat embolism syndrome presents with respiratory distress, petechiae, and neurological symptoms.
Q28. C — Vitamin D deficiency in adults causes osteomalacia with bone pain and weakness.
Q29. A — Anterior shoulder dislocation is the most common type, occurring with abduction and external rotation.
Q30. B — Nocturnal paresthesia in the median nerve distribution suggests carpal tunnel syndrome. | 835 |
| 7 | Answers will be available at 9.30Pm✅ | 1 002 |
| 8 | Q17. A 14-year-old obese adolescent presents with hip pain referred to the knee and limping. X-ray shows posterior displacement of femoral epiphysis.
What is the diagnosis?
A. Slipped capital femoral epiphysis
B. Perthes disease
C. Transient synovitis
D. Septic arthritis
Q18. A 28-year-old man presents with low back pain improving with exercise but worsening with rest. X-ray shows bamboo spine.
What is the diagnosis?
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Osteoarthritis
C. Ankylosing spondylitis
D. Psoriatic arthritis
Q19. A 45-year-old diabetic presents with severe pain and swelling in the foot after minor trauma. X-ray shows fragmentation and collapse of joints.
What is the diagnosis?
A. Osteomyelitis
B. Cellulitis
C. Gout
D. Charcot joint
Q20. A 50-year-old woman presents with pain over the lateral elbow aggravated by wrist extension. There is tenderness over the lateral epicondyle.
What is the diagnosis?
A. Tennis elbow
B. Golfer's elbow
C. Cubital tunnel syndrome
D. Olecranon bursitis
Q21. A 30-year-old man develops inability to dorsiflex the foot after fracture neck of fibula.
Which nerve is injured?
A. Tibial nerve
B. Common peroneal nerve
C. Sural nerve
D. Deep peroneal nerve
Q22. A 55-year-old woman complains of knee pain aggravated by activity and relieved by rest. X-ray shows joint space narrowing and osteophytes.
What is the diagnosis?
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Gout
C. Osteoarthritis
D. Septic arthritis
Q23. A patient with supracondylar fracture of humerus develops absent radial pulse and severe pain in forearm.
What complication should be suspected?
A. Ulnar nerve injury
B. Radial nerve injury
C. Malunion
D. Volkmann ischemic contracture
Q24. A 65-year-old man presents with low-energy vertebral fractures and low bone density on DEXA scan.
What is the first-line medical treatment?
A. Bisphosphonates
B. Calcium alone
C. Calcitonin
D. Teriparatide
Q25. A young man presents with fever and severe back pain. MRI reveals involvement of adjacent vertebral bodies with disc space narrowing.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Degenerative disc disease
B. Metastasis
C. Pott spine
D. Ankylosing spondylitis
Q26. A 22-year-old athlete complains of pain over the tibial tuberosity after exercise. Examination reveals localized tenderness.
What is the diagnosis?
A. Jumper's knee
B. Osgood-Schlatter disease
C. Patellar instability
D. Meniscal injury
Q27. A patient with fracture shaft of femur develops sudden breathlessness, petechial rash, and confusion after 48 hours.
What is the diagnosis?
A. Pulmonary embolism
B. ARDS
C. Septic shock
D. Fat embolism syndrome
Q28. A 40-year-old woman presents with diffuse bone pain and proximal muscle weakness. Investigations reveal low vitamin D levels.
What is the diagnosis?
A. Osteoporosis
B. Paget disease
C. Osteomalacia
D. Multiple myeloma
Q29. A 25-year-old man presents with recurrent shoulder dislocations after sports injury. The dislocations occur with abduction and external rotation.
What is the most common type?
A. Anterior shoulder dislocation
B. Posterior shoulder dislocation
C. Inferior dislocation
D. Superior dislocation
Q30. A 30-year-old laborer presents with numbness in the thumb, index, and middle fingers, worse at night. Tinel sign is positive.
What is the diagnosis?
A. Cubital tunnel syndrome
B. Carpal tunnel syndrome
C. Thoracic outlet syndrome
D. Radial tunnel syndrome | 1 009 |
| 9 | Q1. A 68-year-old woman slips in the bathroom and presents with pain in the left hip. The affected limb is shortened and externally rotated. She is unable to bear weight. X-ray reveals an intracapsular fracture neck of femur.
What is the preferred treatment in this elderly patient?
A. Closed reduction and cast
B. Hemiarthroplasty
C. Dynamic hip screw fixation
D. Traction only
Q2. A 12-year-old boy presents with fever, severe pain, and swelling over the distal femur for 5 days. ESR and CRP are elevated. X-ray is normal, but MRI shows marrow edema.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute osteomyelitis
B. Ewing sarcoma
C. Osteosarcoma
D. Septic arthritis
Q3. A 25-year-old man sustains a fracture of the middle third of the humerus following a road traffic accident. On examination, he has wrist drop and inability to extend fingers.
Which nerve is most likely injured?
A. Ulnar nerve
B. Median nerve
C. Radial nerve
D. Axillary nerve
Q4. A 20-year-old football player presents after twisting injury to the knee. He complains of instability while descending stairs. Lachman test is positive.
Which structure is injured?
A. PCL
B. MCL
C. Meniscus
D. ACL
Q5. A 65-year-old woman complains of back pain and loss of height over several years. DEXA scan reveals T-score of -2.8.
What is the diagnosis?
A. Osteomalacia
B. Paget disease
C. Osteoporosis
D. Hyperparathyroidism
Q6. A 5-year-old child presents with painless limp and limited abduction of the hip. X-ray shows fragmentation and sclerosis of the femoral head.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease
B. Slipped capital femoral epiphysis
C. Developmental dysplasia of hip
D. Septic arthritis
Q7. A 35-year-old man presents with severe pain and swelling in the leg after a tibial fracture. Pain worsens on passive stretching of toes.
What is the diagnosis?
A. DVT
B. Cellulitis
C. Osteomyelitis
D. Compartment syndrome
Q8. A 45-year-old woman presents with pain and stiffness of small joints of the hands lasting more than 1 hour in the morning. Rheumatoid factor is positive.
Which joint deformity is classically associated?
A. Heberden nodes
B. Swan neck deformity
C. Mallet finger
D. Trigger finger
Q9. A 16-year-old boy presents with pain and swelling around the knee. X-ray reveals sunburst appearance and Codman triangle.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Ewing sarcoma
B. Giant cell tumor
C. Osteosarcoma
D. Osteoid osteoma
Q10. A 30-year-old man falls on an outstretched hand. X-ray reveals fracture of the anatomical neck of the scaphoid.
What is the major complication?
A. Malunion
B. Nonunion
C. Compartment syndrome
D. Avascular necrosis
Q11. A 10-year-old child presents with bowing of legs and waddling gait. Serum calcium is low and alkaline phosphatase is elevated.
What is the diagnosis?
A. Rickets
B. Scurvy
C. Osteogenesis imperfecta
D. Achondroplasia
Q12. A 60-year-old man presents with pain in the great toe with sudden onset at night. Joint aspiration reveals needle-shaped negatively birefringent crystals.
What is the diagnosis?
A. Septic arthritis
B. Gout
C. Pseudogout
D. Rheumatoid arthritis
Q13. A patient presents with pain in the snuffbox after falling on an outstretched hand. Initial X-ray is normal.
What should be the next step?
A. Discharge patient
B. Repeat X-ray after 24 hours
C. CT scan immediately
D. Immobilize in thumb spica cast
Q14. A 70-year-old man presents with progressive bowing of tibia and hearing loss. Serum alkaline phosphatase is elevated.
What is the diagnosis?
A. Osteoporosis
B. Osteomalacia
C. Paget disease of bone
D. Hyperparathyroidism
Q15. A newborn has asymmetric thigh folds and limited hip abduction. Ortolani test is positive.
What is the diagnosis?
A. Septic arthritis
B. Developmental dysplasia of hip
C. Perthes disease
D. SCFE
Q16. A 25-year-old man presents after posterior hip dislocation following a road traffic accident. Reduction is delayed for 24 hours.
What is the most feared complication?
A. Osteoarthritis
B. Sciatic nerve palsy
C. Recurrent dislocation
D. Avascular necrosis | 795 |
| 10 | Today questions on Orthopaedic ✅👇 | 847 |
| 11 | When a bird is alive. It eats ants
When bird dies.. Ants eat it
One tree can be made into a million matchsticks.
But only one matchstick is required to burn millions of trees
Circumstances can change at any time.
Don't devalue or hurt anyone in this life.
You may be Powerful today but time is more powerful than you.
So be good and do good. | 1 269 |
| 12 | Your score? | 1 437 |
| 13 | Q1. B — Increased false positives reduce specificity, which measures the ability to correctly identify non-diseased individuals.
Q2. A — DPT booster-1 is administered at 16–24 months under the National Immunization Schedule.
Q3. C — Incidence measures new cases occurring among at-risk individuals over a specified period.
Q4. D — Staphylococcus aureus food poisoning typically causes rapid-onset vomiting within 1–6 hours.
Q5. C — Cohort studies follow exposed and non-exposed groups over time to assess disease occurrence.
Q6. A — Height-for-age is the best indicator of chronic undernutrition or stunting.
Q7. D — Most TB patients become significantly less infectious after about 2 weeks of effective therapy.
Q8. B — MMR = (120/200000) × 100000 = 60 per 100,000 live births.
Q9. C — Leptospirosis is associated with contaminated water exposure and conjunctival suffusion.
Q10. D — A common source epidemic shows a sudden rise followed by gradual decline.
Q11. A — Untreated congenital hypothyroidism can lead to irreversible intellectual disability.
Q12. B — Odds ratio of 5 means smokers have five times higher odds of developing disease.
Q13. D — Vitamin A supplementation is an example of specific protection under primary prevention.
Q14. C — HIV PEP should be started as early as possible, ideally within 2 hours and no later than 72 hours. *(Note: Answer as per distribution.)*
Q15. B — A p-value below 0.05 indicates statistical significance at the 5% level.
Q16. D — Susceptible contacts may receive measles vaccine within 72 hours for post-exposure prophylaxis.
Q17. A — Preventing risk factor development before disease onset is primordial prevention.
Q18. C — Prevalence measures all existing cases in a population at a specific time.
Q19. D — E. coli is the standard indicator organism for fecal contamination of water.
Q20. A — Pap smear detects disease early and is an example of secondary prevention.
Q21. B — Birth weight below 2.5 kg is classified as low birth weight.
Q22. C — Malaria is transmitted by the bite of female Anopheles mosquitoes.
Q23. D — The epidemiological triad consists of agent, host, and environment.
Q24. A — Bilateral pedal edema in malnourished children is characteristic of kwashiorkor.
Q25. C — Oral polio vaccine provides herd immunity by interrupting transmission.
Q26. B — Category III rabies exposure requires both vaccine and rabies immunoglobulin.
Q27. D — Case fatality rate measures deaths among diagnosed cases of a disease.
Q28. C — Longer survival increases disease duration, thereby increasing prevalence.
Q29. A — The optimal fluoride concentration in drinking water is approximately 1 ppm.
Q30. B — Random allocation into intervention and control groups defines an RCT. | 1 424 |
| 14 | Answers will be available at 5 pm today ✅ | 1 351 |
| 15 | Q15. During analysis of data, a researcher finds a p-value of 0.03.
What does this indicate?
A. Null hypothesis is definitely false
B. There is statistically significant association at 5% level
C. Study is clinically significant
D. Result is due to chance alone
Q16. A child presents with fever, Koplik spots, and maculopapular rash. The parents ask about prevention in close contacts.
What is the best preventive measure for susceptible contacts?
A. Oral ribavirin
B. Antibiotics
C. Isolation only
D. Measles vaccine within 72 hours
Q17. A 50-year-old chronic smoker attends a tobacco cessation clinic. The physician advises counseling before disease occurrence.
This intervention falls under:
A. Primordial prevention
B. Secondary prevention
C. Tertiary prevention
D. Rehabilitation
Q18. A village has 2,000 people, among whom 100 individuals are suffering from diabetes on a given date.
Which measure best describes this burden?
A. Incidence
B. Attack rate
C. Prevalence
D. Mortality
Q19. A community experiences a sudden increase in diarrhea cases after heavy rains. Water samples reveal fecal contamination.
Which indicator organism confirms fecal contamination?
A. Streptococcus
B. Clostridium
C. Salmonella
D. Escherichia coli
Q20. A 35-year-old woman is diagnosed with cervical intraepithelial neoplasia during routine screening.
Which level of prevention does Pap smear screening represent?
A. Secondary prevention
B. Primary prevention
C. Primordial prevention
D. Tertiary prevention
Q21. A newborn weighing 2.3 kg is delivered at term. There are no congenital anomalies.
How is this newborn classified?
A. Very low birth weight
B. Low birth weight
C. Preterm baby
D. Small for gestational age
Q22. A patient develops fever with chills every 48 hours. Peripheral smear shows Plasmodium vivax.
What is the vector responsible?
A. Culex mosquito
B. Aedes mosquito
C. Female Anopheles mosquito
D. Sandfly
Q23. A family physician notices that disease occurrence is influenced by host, agent, and environmental factors.
Which epidemiological model explains this?
A. Iceberg phenomenon
B. Web of causation
C. Wheel model
D. Epidemiological triad
Q24. A child presents with severe acute malnutrition and bilateral pitting edema of feet.
What is the likely diagnosis?
A. Kwashiorkor
B. Marasmus
C. Underweight
D. Stunting
Q25. During a vaccination campaign, herd immunity is discussed with healthcare workers.
Which vaccine provides strong herd immunity?
A. Tetanus toxoid
B. Rabies vaccine
C. Oral polio vaccine
D. Hepatitis B vaccine
Q26. A patient with suspected rabies presents after a category III dog bite. The wound is deep and multiple.
What additional treatment is required besides vaccination?
A. Antibiotics only
B. Rabies immunoglobulin
C. Tetanus toxoid only
D. Observation of dog only
Q27. A district reports 15 deaths due to tuberculosis among 10,000 TB patients in a year.
Which epidemiological measure is being calculated?
A. Crude death rate
B. Infant mortality rate
C. Maternal mortality ratio
D. Case fatality rate
Q28. A physician notices that prevalence of hypertension is increasing despite stable incidence because patients are surviving longer.
Which factor best explains this increase?
A. Reduced diagnosis
B. Increased migration
C. Increased duration of disease
D. Higher mortality
Q29. A medical officer plans fluoridation of community water supply to prevent dental caries.
What is the optimal fluoride concentration in drinking water?
A. 1 ppm
B. 5 ppm
C. 0.1 ppm
D. 10 ppm
Q30. A researcher allocates participants randomly into intervention and control groups to evaluate a new antihypertensive drug.
Which study design is this?
A. Cohort study
B. Randomized controlled trial
C. Cross-sectional study
D. Case-control study | 1 433 |
| 16 | Q1. A community health officer conducts a screening program for hypertension in adults above 30 years in a village. The test identifies 180 individuals as positive, but later confirmatory testing reveals that 30 of them do not actually have hypertension. Which parameter of the screening test is primarily reduced in this situation?
A. Sensitivity
B. Specificity
C. Positive predictive value
D. Accuracy
Q2. A 2-year-old child weighing 10 kg is brought to the immunization clinic. The child has received all vaccines till 9 months but missed subsequent visits. According to the National Immunization Schedule, which vaccine should be administered at this age?
A. DPT booster-1
B. BCG
C. OPV-0
D. Hepatitis B birth dose
Q3. An epidemiologist observes an increase in dengue cases in a district over the past 5 years. He wants to study the occurrence of new cases during a specified period among at-risk individuals.
Which epidemiological measure is most appropriate?
A. Prevalence rate
B. Attack rate
C. Incidence rate
D. Mortality rate
Q4. During an outbreak investigation, 50 people consumed food at a wedding and developed vomiting within 6 hours. The source is suspected to be contaminated cream pastries.
Which organism is most likely responsible?
A. Salmonella typhi
B. Vibrio cholerae
C. Clostridium botulinum
D. Staphylococcus aureus
Q5. A researcher follows 500 smokers and 500 non-smokers for 10 years to assess lung cancer development. The disease occurrence in both groups is compared.
Which study design is being used?
A. Cross-sectional study
B. Case-control study
C. Cohort study
D. Ecological study
Q6. A health worker measures weight and height of school children and compares them with WHO growth standards. The index used to detect chronic undernutrition is:
A. Height-for-age
B. Weight-for-height
C. BMI-for-age
D. Weight-for-age
Q7. A patient with pulmonary tuberculosis has completed 2 weeks of effective anti-tubercular therapy. Family members ask when the patient becomes non-infectious.
What is the period of communicability after effective treatment?
A. 6 months
B. 3 months
C. 1 month
D. Approximately 2 weeks
Q8. A district reports 120 maternal deaths among 2,00,000 live births in a year. The health officer wants to calculate maternal mortality ratio.
What is the MMR?
A. 30 per 100,000 live births
B. 60 per 100,000 live births
C. 120 per 100,000 live births
D. 240 per 100,000 live births
Q9. A patient with fever and jaundice works in paddy fields and reports exposure to contaminated water. Examination reveals conjunctival suffusion.
Which disease is most likely?
A. Malaria
B. Hepatitis A
C. Leptospirosis
D. Typhoid fever
Q10. A public health team notices clustering of cholera cases around a contaminated water source. The epidemic curve shows a sharp rise and gradual fall.
What type of epidemic is this?
A. Progressive epidemic
B. Propagated epidemic
C. Mixed epidemic
D. Common source epidemic
Q11. A newborn is screened for congenital hypothyroidism under RBSK. Early detection is important because delayed treatment may lead to irreversible:
A. Mental retardation
B. Deafness
C. Blindness
D. Cardiac defects
Q12. A researcher is studying the association between smoking and lung cancer. The calculated odds ratio is 5.
What does this imply?
A. Smokers have 5 times greater incidence
B. Smokers have 5 times higher odds of disease
C. Disease prevalence is 5%
D. Relative risk is 5
Q13. A 4-year-old child presents with Bitot spots and night blindness. Dietary history reveals poor intake of green leafy vegetables.
Which level of prevention is being practiced by vitamin A supplementation?
A. Primordial prevention
B. Primary prevention
C. Secondary prevention
D. Specific protection
Q14. A 25-year-old healthcare worker sustains a needle-stick injury from an HIV-positive patient. Immediate post-exposure prophylaxis is advised.
Within how many hours should PEP ideally be started?
A. 72 hours
B. 48 hours
C. 24 hours
D. As early as possible, preferably within 2 hours | 1 315 |
| 17 | Today questions on PSM✅👇 | 1 401 |
| 18 |  💯 | 2 151 |
| 19 | Your score? | 2 132 |
| 20 | Q1. B — Primary PCI is the preferred reperfusion strategy for STEMI when available within the recommended time window.
Q2. A — Hereditary spherocytosis presents with hemolytic anemia, splenomegaly, spherocytes, and increased osmotic fragility.
Q3. C — Persistent airflow limitation with post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC <70% confirms COPD.
Q4. D — TB meningitis characteristically shows lymphocytic CSF, high protein, low glucose, and elevated opening pressure.
Q5. C — Metformin is the first-line treatment for newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes in patients without contraindications.
Q6. A — Elevated ACTH with low cortisol and hyperpigmentation indicates primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison disease).
Q7. D — Acute ischemic stroke within the therapeutic window with no hemorrhage on CT requires IV thrombolysis.
Q8. B — Malar rash, proteinuria, and positive ANA with anti-dsDNA are classic features of SLE.
Q9. C — Wernicke encephalopathy is caused by thiamine deficiency and presents with confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia.
Q10. D — Diffuse toxic goiter with exophthalmos is characteristic of Graves disease.
Q11. A — IgA nephropathy commonly presents with hematuria following upper respiratory infections.
Q12. B — Episodic pain after fatty meals with gallstones but no inflammation indicates biliary colic.
Q13. D — Squamous cell carcinoma is a central lung tumor associated with hypercalcemia due to PTHrP secretion.
Q14. C — Positive anti-mitochondrial antibodies and cholestatic pattern suggest primary biliary cholangitis.
Q15. B — Propranolol rapidly controls adrenergic symptoms of hyperthyroidism.
Q16. D — Gas within renal parenchyma in diabetics is diagnostic of emphysematous pyelonephritis.
Q17. A — Recurrent oral ulcers, genital ulcers, uveitis, and positive pathergy test indicate Behçet syndrome.
Q18. C — M spike with Bence Jones proteins is diagnostic of multiple myeloma.
Q19. D — Fever, murmur, positive blood cultures, and vascular signs suggest infective endocarditis.
Q20. A — Proximal muscle weakness with heliotrope rash is classic for dermatomyositis.
Q21. B — Honeycombing on HRCT is characteristic of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis.
Q22. C — Episodic headache, sweating, and hypertension are typical of pheochromocytoma.
Q23. D — Elevated ammonia with asterixis in cirrhosis indicates hepatic encephalopathy.
Q24. A — Sudden painless vision loss with a cherry-red spot suggests central retinal artery occlusion.
Q25. C — Positive anti-tTG antibodies and dermatitis herpetiformis strongly indicate celiac disease.
Q26. B — Resting tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia are cardinal features of Parkinson disease.
Q27. D — Macrocytosis with neurological symptoms suggests vitamin B12 deficiency.
Q28. C — Congo red positivity with apple-green birefringence is diagnostic of amyloidosis.
Q29. A — Dry eyes, dry mouth, and anti-Ro/La positivity are characteristic of Sjögren syndrome.
Q30. B — Myoglobin is the earliest cardiac biomarker to rise after myocardial infarction. | 2 034 |
