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NEETPG, INICET, FMGE PYT

NEETPG, INICET, FMGE PYT

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📈 تحلیل کانال تلگرام NEETPG, INICET, FMGE PYT

کانال NEETPG, INICET, FMGE PYT (@neetpg_pyt) در بخش زبانی انگلیسی بازیگری فعال است. در حال حاضر جامعه شامل 20 814 مشترک است و جایگاه 1 100 را در دسته پزشکی و رتبه 21 313 را در منطقه الهند دارد.

📊 شاخص‌های مخاطب و پویایی

از زمان ایجاد در невідомо، پروژه رشد سریعی داشته و 20 814 مشترک جذب کرده است.

بر اساس آخرین داده‌ها در تاریخ 12 ژوئن, 2026، کانال فعالیت پایداری دارد. در ۳۰ روز گذشته تغییر اعضا برابر 646 و در ۲۴ ساعت گذشته برابر 14 بوده و همچنان دسترسی گسترده‌ای حفظ شده است.

  • وضعیت تأیید: تأیید نشده
  • نرخ تعامل (ER): میانگین تعامل مخاطب 8.54% است و در ۲۴ ساعت نخست پس از انتشار، محتوا معمولاً 3.66% واکنش نسبت به کل مشترکان کسب می‌کند.
  • دسترسی پست‌ها: هر پست به طور میانگین 1 770 بازدید دریافت می‌کند. در اولین روز معمولاً 759 بازدید جمع‌آوری می‌شود.
  • واکنش‌ها و تعامل: مخاطبان به‌طور فعال حمایت می‌کنند؛ میانگین واکنش به هر پست 5 است.
  • علایق موضوعی: محتوا بر موضوعات کلیدی مانند patient, nerve, deficiency, present, disease تمرکز دارد.

📝 توضیح و سیاست محتوایی

نویسنده این فضا را محل بیان دیدگاه‌های شخصی توصیف می‌کند:
PRIMIUM CONTENT ✨ - Any query contact- @Drconcept

به لطف به‌روزرسانی‌های پرتکرار (آخرین داده در تاریخ 13 ژوئن, 2026)، کانال همواره به‌روز و دارای دسترسی بالاست. تحلیل‌ها نشان می‌دهد مخاطبان به‌طور فعال با محتوا تعامل دارند و آن را به نقطه اثرگذاری مهم در دسته پزشکی تبدیل کرده‌اند.

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2
1. A — Scabies presents with nocturnal itching, burrows, and involvement of finger webs with family clustering. 2. B — Lepromatous leprosy shows multiple lesions, nerve involvement, and abundant acid-fast bacilli on slit skin smear. 3. C — Lichen planus classically presents with pruritic purple polygonal papules and Wickham striae. 4. D — Herpes zoster causes painful dermatomal vesicular eruptions that do not cross the midline. 5. A — Acne vulgaris presents with comedones, papules, and pustules during adolescence. 6. B — Basal cell carcinoma appears as pearly papule with telangiectasia and central ulceration. 7. C — Vitiligo causes sharply demarcated depigmented macules without scaling or sensory loss. 8. D — Oral candidiasis causes scrapable white plaques in immunocompromised patients. 9. A — Psoriasis presents with silvery scales over extensor surfaces and positive Auspitz sign. 10. B — Tinea corporis presents with annular lesions and fungal hyphae on KOH examination. 11. C — Honey-colored crusted lesions around mouth are characteristic of impetigo contagiosa. 12. D — Erythroderma refers to generalized erythema and scaling involving most of body surface area. 13. A — Behçet disease presents with oral ulcers, genital ulcers, uveitis, and positive pathergy test. 14. B — Pityriasis versicolor shows hypopigmented scaly lesions with spaghetti and meatball appearance on KOH. 15. C — Pemphigus vulgaris causes flaccid bullae with positive Nikolsky sign and intraepidermal acantholysis. 16. D — Photosensitive malar rash with oral ulcers and positive ANA suggests SLE. 17. A — Erysipelas is characterized by sharply demarcated erythematous skin infection. 18. B — Hyperhidrosis refers to excessive sweating involving palms and soles. 19. C — Systemic sclerosis causes tight skin, Raynaud phenomenon, and esophageal dysmotility. 20. D — Erythema multiforme presents with target lesions commonly triggered by herpes simplex infection. 21. A — Urticaria presents with transient itchy wheals disappearing without residual pigmentation. 22. B — Permethrin 5% cream is the treatment of choice for scabies. 23. C — Erythema nodosum presents with painful tender nodules over anterior shins. 24. D — Toxic epidermal necrolysis involves extensive epidermal detachment >30% after drug exposure. 25. A — Alopecia areata presents with non-scarring patchy hair loss and exclamation mark hairs. 26. B — Kaposi sarcoma presents with violaceous vascular lesions in HIV patients. 27. C — Pediculosis capitis presents with scalp itching and nits attached to hair shafts. 28. D — Fixed drug eruption recurs at the same site after repeated exposure to offending drug. 29. C — Dermatitis herpetiformis is associated with gluten-sensitive enteropathy and grouped itchy vesicles. 30. D — Malignant melanoma presents with asymmetrical pigmented lesion showing color variation and enlargement.
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Answers will be available at 5 pm today ✅👇
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30. A 55-year-old man presents with asymmetrical irregular pigmented lesion over back showing color variation and recent increase in size. Which skin malignancy is most likely? A. Basal cell carcinoma B. Squamous cell carcinoma C. Bowen disease D. Malignant melanoma
850
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15. A 42-year-old woman presents with flaccid bullae over skin and oral mucosa. Nikolsky sign is positive. Histopathology shows intraepidermal acantholysis. Which is the most likely diagnosis? A. Bullous pemphigoid B. Dermatitis herpetiformis C. Pemphigus vulgaris D. Epidermolysis bullosa 16. A 26-year-old woman presents with butterfly rash over face aggravated by sunlight along with oral ulcers and joint pain. ANA is positive. Which is the most likely diagnosis? A. Rosacea B. Dermatomyositis C. Seborrheic dermatitis D. Systemic lupus erythematosus 17. A 60-year-old diabetic patient presents with painful swelling and redness of leg with fever. Margins are raised and sharply demarcated. Which is the most likely diagnosis? A. Erysipelas B. Cellulitis C. Necrotizing fasciitis D. Eczema 18. A 19-year-old girl presents with excessive sweating involving palms and soles affecting daily activities. Examination is otherwise normal. Which is the most likely diagnosis? A. Anhidrosis B. Hyperhidrosis C. Bromhidrosis D. Miliaria 19. A 48-year-old woman presents with thickened tight skin over fingers and face associated with dysphagia and Raynaud phenomenon. Which connective tissue disorder is most likely? A. Dermatomyositis B. SLE C. Systemic sclerosis D. Rheumatoid arthritis 20. A 14-year-old boy presents with target lesions over hands and oral ulcers after recent herpes simplex infection. Which is the most likely diagnosis? A. Pemphigus vulgaris B. Bullous impetigo C. Urticaria D. Erythema multiforme 21. A 30-year-old woman presents with recurrent itchy wheals over body lasting for few hours and disappearing without pigmentation. Which is the most likely diagnosis? A. Urticaria B. Psoriasis C. Fixed drug eruption D. Erythema nodosum 22. A 50-year-old woman presents with severe itching in finger webs and genital region for 1 month. Multiple family members are affected. Which is the drug of choice? A. Topical steroid B. Permethrin cream C. Oral fluconazole D. Dapsone 23. A 35-year-old man presents with painful nodules over anterior aspect of legs associated with fever and joint pain. Lesions are tender and erythematous. Which is the most likely diagnosis? A. Cellulitis B. Erysipelas C. Erythema nodosum D. Vasculitis 24. A 45-year-old man presents with rapidly spreading skin necrosis and mucosal involvement after taking sulfonamide antibiotics. Nikolsky sign is positive and epidermal detachment involves >30% body surface area. Which is the most likely diagnosis? A. Pemphigus foliaceus B. Bullous pemphigoid C. Stevens-Johnson syndrome D. Toxic epidermal necrolysis 25. A 18-year-old girl presents with patchy hair loss over scalp without scarring. Exclamation mark hairs are seen at margins. Which is the most likely diagnosis? A. Alopecia areata B. Tinea capitis C. Trichotillomania D. Telogen effluvium 26. A 42-year-old HIV-positive patient presents with multiple violaceous plaques over skin and oral cavity. Biopsy reveals spindle-shaped vascular proliferation. Which is the most likely diagnosis? A. Melanoma B. Kaposi sarcoma C. Basal cell carcinoma D. Dermatofibroma 27. A 9-year-old child presents with severe itching around scalp and nape of neck. Examination reveals nits attached to hair shafts. Which is the most likely diagnosis? A. Scabies B. Tinea capitis C. Pediculosis capitis D. Seborrheic dermatitis 28. A 36-year-old woman presents with recurrent painful fixed erythematous patches appearing over lips after taking NSAIDs. Lesions recur at same site every time. Which is the most likely diagnosis? A. Urticaria B. Erythema multiforme C. Stevens-Johnson syndrome D. Fixed drug eruption 29. A 27-year-old man presents with severe itching and grouped papulovesicular lesions over elbows, knees, and buttocks. Small bowel biopsy reveals gluten-sensitive enteropathy. Which is the most likely diagnosis? A. Pemphigus vulgaris B. Bullous pemphigoid C. Dermatitis herpetiformis D. Psoriasis
848
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1. A 22-year-old college student presents with multiple itchy papules and burrows over finger webs, wrists, and abdomen for 3 weeks. Similar complaints are present in hostel roommates. Nighttime itching is severe. Which is the most likely diagnosis? A. Scabies B. Psoriasis C. Atopic dermatitis D. Tinea corporis 2. A 30-year-old man presents with multiple hypopigmented anesthetic patches over trunk and thickened ulnar nerve. Slit skin smear reveals numerous acid-fast bacilli. Which type of leprosy is most likely? A. Tuberculoid leprosy B. Lepromatous leprosy C. Borderline tuberculoid D. Indeterminate leprosy 3. A 25-year-old woman presents with violaceous itchy polygonal papules over flexor surfaces of wrist and oral mucosa. Wickham striae are noted on examination. Which is the most likely diagnosis? A. Psoriasis B. Pityriasis rosea C. Lichen planus D. Vitiligo 4. A 45-year-old diabetic woman presents with painful grouped vesicular eruptions over right thoracic dermatome associated with burning pain. Lesions do not cross the midline. Which is the most likely diagnosis? A. Herpes simplex B. Impetigo C. Contact dermatitis D. Herpes zoster 5. A 17-year-old boy presents with inflammatory papules, pustules, and comedones over face and upper back. Lesions worsen during adolescence. Which is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acne vulgaris B. Rosacea C. Folliculitis D. Seborrheic dermatitis 6. A 50-year-old farmer presents with a slowly enlarging pearly papule over nose with telangiectasia and central ulceration. Biopsy confirms malignancy. Which is the most likely diagnosis? A. Squamous cell carcinoma B. Basal cell carcinoma C. Melanoma D. Keratoacanthoma 7. A 28-year-old woman presents with sharply demarcated depigmented macules over hands and face. There is no scaling or sensory loss. Family history is positive for similar illness. Which is the most likely diagnosis? A. Pityriasis versicolor B. Leprosy C. Vitiligo D. Albinism 8. A 35-year-old HIV-positive man presents with multiple whitish plaques over oral mucosa that can be scraped off leaving erythematous base. Which organism is most likely responsible? A. Herpes simplex virus B. Epstein-Barr virus C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Candida albicans 9. A 40-year-old man presents with erythematous plaques covered with silvery scales over extensor surfaces of elbows and knees. Auspitz sign is positive. Which is the most likely diagnosis? A. Psoriasis B. Lichen simplex chronicus C. Tinea corporis D. Seborrheic dermatitis 10. A 24-year-old wrestler presents with annular itchy lesions with central clearing over trunk. KOH mount reveals fungal hyphae. Which is the most likely diagnosis? A. Psoriasis B. Tinea corporis C. Pityriasis rosea D. Vitiligo 11. A 6-year-old child presents with honey-colored crusted lesions around mouth and nose. Lesions started after minor trauma. Which is the most likely diagnosis? A. Erysipelas B. Cellulitis C. Impetigo contagiosa D. Herpes zoster 12. A 55-year-old man presents with generalized erythema involving more than 90% of body surface area with scaling and itching. He has history of chronic psoriasis. What is this condition called? A. Stevens-Johnson syndrome B. Toxic epidermal necrolysis C. Pemphigus vulgaris D. Erythroderma 13. A 32-year-old woman presents with recurrent painful oral ulcers associated with genital ulcers and uveitis. Pathergy test is positive. Which is the most likely diagnosis? A. Behçet disease B. Pemphigus vulgaris C. SLE D. Aphthous stomatitis 14. A 20-year-old man presents with diffuse hypopigmented scaly macules over upper trunk. Lesions become more prominent after sun exposure. KOH mount shows spaghetti and meatball appearance. Which is the most likely diagnosis? A. Vitiligo B. Pityriasis versicolor C. Psoriasis D. Seborrheic dermatitis
630
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Today questions on Dermatology ✅👇
662
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Everyone has their own orbit, You don't need to spin around someone else's path.
904
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Your score?
1 132
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ANSWERS 1. A — Schizophrenia presents with delusions, hallucinations, social withdrawal, and symptoms lasting more than 6 months. 2. B — SSRIs like fluoxetine are first-line pharmacotherapy for obsessive-compulsive disorder. 3. C — Persistent depressed mood with biological symptoms and suicidal ideas for more than 2 weeks suggests major depressive disorder. 4. D — Panic disorder causes recurrent unexpected panic attacks with autonomic symptoms and fear of dying. 5. A — Mania causes elevated mood with marked functional impairment lasting at least 1 week. 6. B — Generalized anxiety disorder presents with excessive uncontrollable worry lasting more than 6 months. 7. C — Bulimia nervosa involves binge eating with compensatory behaviors like self-induced vomiting and normal body weight. 8. D — Thiamine deficiency in alcoholics causes Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome with confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. 9. A — Isolation of affect is a common defense mechanism in obsessive-compulsive disorder. 10. B — Alzheimer disease presents with progressive memory loss and decline in cognitive functioning. 11. C — Conversion disorder causes neurological symptoms without organic basis, usually after stress. 12. D — Fixed false belief of insects crawling under skin despite evidence is a delusion. 13. A — ECT provides rapid improvement in severe depression with suicidality or refusal to eat. 14. B — Intrusive repetitive thoughts recognized as irrational are called obsessions. 15. C — Specific phobia involves irrational fear of a specific object or situation with avoidance behavior. 16. D — Delirium tremens occurs after alcohol withdrawal with tremors, hallucinations, and autonomic instability. 17. A — Anorexia nervosa is characterized by low body weight, amenorrhea, and distorted body image. 18. B — Hypomania causes elevated mood without marked social or occupational impairment and no psychosis. 19. C — Delusional disorder presents with fixed non-bizarre delusions with relatively preserved functioning. 20. D — PTSD occurs after traumatic events with flashbacks, nightmares, hypervigilance, and avoidance. 21. A — Antipsychotics can cause extrapyramidal symptoms including drug-induced parkinsonism. 22. B — Somatic symptom disorder presents with multiple distressing physical symptoms without organic cause. 23. C — Seasonal affective disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive episodes during specific seasons. 24. D — Social anxiety disorder involves intense fear of embarrassment in social or performance situations. 25. A — Delirium presents with acute fluctuating consciousness, hallucinations, and disorientation. 26. B — Borderline personality disorder involves impulsivity, unstable relationships, and self-harm behavior. 27. C — Trichotillomania is characterized by recurrent hair pulling with relief afterward. 28. D — Persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia) involves chronic low-grade depression for at least 2 years. 29. C — Third-person auditory hallucinations are Schneiderian first-rank symptoms of schizophrenia. 30. D — Dissociative amnesia causes inability to recall important personal information after trauma.
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Answers will be available at 5 pm today ✅👇
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27. A 40-year-old businessman repeatedly pulls out his hair during periods of stress leading to visible patches of alopecia. He experiences relief after pulling hair. Which is the most likely diagnosis? A. OCD B. Body dysmorphic disorder C. Trichotillomania D. Conversion disorder 28. A 52-year-old woman presents with persistent low mood, hopelessness, and reduced interest in activities for 3 years. Symptoms are less severe than major depression but chronic in nature. Which is the most likely diagnosis? A. Cyclothymia B. Bipolar disorder C. Adjustment disorder D. Persistent depressive disorder 29. A 31-year-old man hears voices discussing him in third person and believes television channels are sending him secret messages. Symptoms have persisted for 1 year with social decline. Which first-rank symptom is present? A. Thought broadcasting B. Thought insertion C. Third-person auditory hallucination D. Echolalia 30. A 38-year-old woman presents with sudden inability to recall important personal information after witnessing a traumatic event. Neurological examination and imaging are normal. Which is the most likely diagnosis? A. Dementia B. Delirium C. Malingering D. Dissociative amnesia
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13. A 40-year-old woman with severe depression has suicidal ideation and refusal to eat. She has not improved with antidepressants. Which treatment provides the most rapid response? A. Electroconvulsive therapy B. Psychoanalysis C. CBT alone D. Lithium therapy 14. A 29-year-old man presents with recurrent intrusive thoughts of harming his child. He is distressed by these thoughts and avoids holding the baby. He knows these thoughts are irrational. What are these thoughts called? A. Delusions B. Obsessions C. Hallucinations D. Phobias 15. A 23-year-old medical student develops intense fear and palpitations whenever she enters crowded elevators. She avoids elevators despite knowing fear is excessive. Which is the most likely diagnosis? A. Panic disorder B. Agoraphobia C. Specific phobia D. Social anxiety disorder 16. A 48-year-old chronic alcoholic suddenly develops tremors, sweating, agitation, visual hallucinations, and disorientation after stopping alcohol intake abruptly. Which is the most likely diagnosis? A. Korsakoff psychosis B. Hepatic encephalopathy C. Acute psychosis D. Delirium tremens 17. A 21-year-old woman presents with low body weight, amenorrhea, distorted body image, and refusal to maintain normal weight despite emaciation. Which is the most likely diagnosis? A. Anorexia nervosa B. Bulimia nervosa C. Depression D. Somatization disorder 18. A 34-year-old man presents with elevated mood, excessive spending, increased energy, and decreased sleep for 5 days. Occupational functioning is not severely impaired and psychosis is absent. Which is the most likely diagnosis? A. Mania B. Hypomania C. Cyclothymia D. Schizoaffective disorder 19. A 55-year-old man believes his spouse is unfaithful despite no evidence. He repeatedly accuses her and monitors her activities. Functioning is otherwise preserved. Which is the most likely diagnosis? A. Schizophrenia B. OCD C. Delusional disorder D. Major depression 20. A 26-year-old woman develops flashbacks, nightmares, hypervigilance, and avoidance behavior after surviving a major road traffic accident 3 months ago. Which is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute stress disorder B. Adjustment disorder C. Panic disorder D. Post-traumatic stress disorder 21. A 42-year-old man with schizophrenia develops rigidity, tremors, bradykinesia, and mask-like facies after starting antipsychotic medication. Which adverse effect is he experiencing? A. Drug-induced parkinsonism B. Akathisia C. Tardive dyskinesia D. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome 22. A 30-year-old woman presents with multiple physical complaints involving abdomen, head, and joints for several years. Repeated investigations are normal. Symptoms cause significant distress. Which is the most likely diagnosis? A. Illness anxiety disorder B. Somatic symptom disorder C. Conversion disorder D. Factitious disorder 23. A 45-year-old man presents with recurrent episodes of severe sadness every winter associated with hypersomnia and overeating. Symptoms improve during summer months. Which is the most likely diagnosis? A. Cyclothymia B. Persistent depressive disorder C. Seasonal affective disorder D. Bipolar disorder 24. A 19-year-old boy presents with fear of being negatively judged while speaking in public. He avoids seminars and social interactions due to severe anxiety and sweating. Which is the most likely diagnosis? A. Specific phobia B. Panic disorder C. Agoraphobia D. Social anxiety disorder 25. A 60-year-old patient admitted to ICU develops fluctuating consciousness, disorientation, visual hallucinations, and disturbed sleep-wake cycle over 2 days. Which is the most likely diagnosis? A. Delirium B. Dementia C. Schizophrenia D. Depression 26. A 25-year-old woman presents with recurrent episodes of impulsive self-harm, unstable relationships, mood swings, and chronic feelings of emptiness. Which personality disorder is most likely? A. Histrionic personality disorder B. Borderline personality disorder C. Antisocial personality disorder D. Avoidant personality disorder
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1. A 24-year-old man is brought by family members with suspiciousness, hearing voices commenting on his actions, and social withdrawal for 8 months. He believes neighbors are plotting against him. Mental status examination reveals third-person auditory hallucinations and delusions of persecution. Which is the most likely diagnosis? A. Schizophrenia B. Delusional disorder C. Bipolar disorder D. Acute psychosis 2. A 30-year-old woman presents with repeated intrusive thoughts of contamination and repetitive hand washing for several hours daily. She recognizes these thoughts as irrational but cannot resist them. Symptoms interfere with her routine activities. Which is the first-line pharmacological treatment? A. Haloperidol B. Fluoxetine C. Lithium D. Alprazolam 3. A 45-year-old man presents with low mood, early morning awakening, loss of interest, fatigue, and suicidal thoughts for 2 months. He has decreased appetite and psychomotor retardation. There is no history of mania. Which is the most likely diagnosis? A. Cyclothymia B. Persistent depressive disorder C. Major depressive disorder D. Adjustment disorder 4. A 22-year-old college student presents to the emergency department with sudden episodes of intense fear, palpitations, sweating, chest tightness, and fear of dying lasting for 15 minutes. Examination and ECG are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Generalized anxiety disorder B. Somatization disorder C. Social phobia D. Panic disorder 5. A 28-year-old man presents with elevated mood, decreased need for sleep, excessive talkativeness, grandiose ideas, and increased goal-directed activity for 10 days. His functioning is severely impaired. Which is the most likely diagnosis? A. Mania B. Hypomania C. Cyclothymia D. Dysthymia 6. A 35-year-old woman presents with persistent excessive anxiety and worry about routine activities for the past 8 months. She complains of restlessness, muscle tension, and poor sleep. Which is the most likely diagnosis? A. Panic disorder B. Generalized anxiety disorder C. OCD D. Acute stress reaction 7. A 19-year-old girl presents with recurrent binge eating episodes followed by self-induced vomiting due to fear of weight gain. Her BMI is within normal range. Which is the most likely diagnosis? A. Anorexia nervosa B. Binge eating disorder C. Bulimia nervosa D. Body dysmorphic disorder 8. A 50-year-old chronic alcoholic presents with confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. Memory impairment develops later with confabulation. Deficiency of which vitamin is primarily responsible? A. Vitamin B12 B. Vitamin B6 C. Vitamin C D. Thiamine 9. A 27-year-old man repeatedly checks door locks and gas stove despite knowing they are already secured. These behaviors consume several hours daily and cause distress. Which defense mechanism is commonly associated with this condition? A. Isolation B. Projection C. Denial D. Sublimation 10. A 65-year-old man presents with progressive memory loss, inability to recognize family members, and impaired daily functioning for 2 years. Examination shows disorientation and impaired recent memory. Which is the most likely diagnosis? A. Delirium B. Alzheimer disease C. Depression D. Amnesia 11. A 32-year-old woman presents with episodes of blindness and inability to move legs after stressful family conflicts. Neurological examination and investigations are normal. Symptoms are not intentionally produced. Which is the most likely diagnosis? A. Factitious disorder B. Malingering C. Conversion disorder D. Somatic symptom disorder 12. A 24-year-old man presents with persistent belief that insects are crawling under his skin despite normal dermatological examination. He repeatedly scratches himself causing skin lesions. Which psychopathological symptom is present? A. Illusion B. Obsession C. Hallucination D. Delusion
785
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Today's Questions on Psychiatry ✅👇
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Your mind will believe what you continuously tell it. So tell it that you're smart, ambitious, fearless, and that you have wh
Your mind will believe what you continuously tell it. So tell it that you're smart, ambitious, fearless, and that you have what it takes.
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1 151
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Your score?
1 057
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1. A — Osteoporosis is the most common predisposing factor for fracture neck of femur in elderly women. 2. B — Radial nerve injury commonly occurs with fracture shaft of humerus causing wrist drop. 3. C — Acute osteomyelitis commonly affects metaphysis of long bones in children with fever and periosteal reaction. 4. D — Colles fracture is fracture distal radius with dorsal displacement following fall on outstretched hand. 5. A — Vitamin D deficiency causes rickets with metaphyseal cupping and bowing of legs. 6. B — Pott spine is tuberculous involvement of vertebrae with paravertebral abscess formation. 7. C — Positive anterior drawer test indicates anterior cruciate ligament injury. 8. D — Osteoarthritis presents with joint space narrowing, osteophytes, and pain worsened by activity. 9. A — Calcaneal fractures are commonly associated with vertebral compression fractures after fall from height. 10. B — Fever, limp, raised ESR, and hip effusion strongly suggest septic arthritis. 11. C — Carpal tunnel syndrome involves compression of median nerve causing nocturnal paresthesia. 12. D — Monteggia fracture consists of ulna fracture with radial head dislocation. 13. A — DEXA scan is the gold standard investigation for diagnosing osteoporosis. 14. B — Supraspinatus initiates abduction of shoulder up to first 15 degrees. 15. C — Sunburst appearance and Codman triangle are classical for osteosarcoma. 16. D — Fracture neck of fifth metacarpal is commonly called boxer fracture. 17. A — Needle-shaped negatively birefringent crystals are diagnostic of gout. 18. B — Obesity is a major risk factor for slipped capital femoral epiphysis. 19. C — Swan neck deformity is a characteristic deformity seen in rheumatoid arthritis. 20. D — Anatomical snuffbox tenderness strongly suggests scaphoid fracture even if initial X-ray is normal. 21. A — Perthes disease is avascular necrosis of femoral head in children causing painless limp. 22. B — Ankylosing spondylitis is strongly associated with HLA-B27 positivity. 23. C — Positive Thompson test indicates Achilles tendon rupture. 24. D — Trochanteric bursitis causes lateral hip pain and tenderness over greater trochanter. 25. A — Common peroneal nerve injury causes foot drop and sensory loss over dorsum of foot. 26. B — Anti-CCP antibody is highly specific for rheumatoid arthritis. 27. C — Osgood-Schlatter disease causes traction apophysitis at tibial tuberosity in active adolescents. 28. D — Multiple myeloma presents with M spike, punched-out skull lesions, anemia, and fractures. 29. C — Frozen shoulder is common in diabetics with painful restriction of active and passive movements. 30. D — Massive hemorrhage is the most immediate life-threatening complication of unstable pelvic fractures.
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Answers will be available at 5 pm today ✅
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