AMC MCQ exam Prep by Dr Jayse
📈 Telegram kanali AMC MCQ exam Prep by Dr Jayse analitikasi
AMC MCQ exam Prep by Dr Jayse (@amcmcqprep) Ingliz til segmentidagi kanali faol ishtirokchi. Hozirda hamjamiyat 10 474 obunachidan iborat bo'lib, Tibbiyot toifasida 2 613-o'rinni va Singapur mintaqasida 320-o'rinni egallagan.
📊 Auditoriya ko‘rsatkichlari va dinamika
невідомо sanasidan buyon loyiha tez o‘sib, 10 474 obunachiga ega bo‘ldi.
19 Iyun, 2026 dagi oxirgi ma’lumotlarga ko‘ra kanal barqaror faollikka ega. Oxirgi 30 kunda obunachilar soni 66 ga, so‘nggi 24 soatda esa -1 ga o‘zgardi va umumiy qamrov yuqori darajada qolmoqda.
- Tasdiqlash holati: Tasdiqlanmagan
- Jalb etish (ER): Auditoriya o‘rtacha 2.24% darajada jalb etiladi. Nashrdan keyingi dastlabki 24 soatda kontent odatda umumiy obunachilar sonining 2.47% ini tashkil etuvchi reaksiyalarni to‘playdi.
- Post qamrovi: Har bir post o‘rtacha 235 marta ko‘riladi; birinchi sutkada odatda 259 ta ko‘rish yig‘iladi.
- Reaksiyalar va o‘zaro ta’sir: Auditoriya faol: har bir postga o‘rtacha 1 ta reaksiya keladi.
- Tematik yo‘nalishlar: Kontent statin, patient, mcq, symptom, examination kabi asosiy mavzularga jamlangan.
📝 Tavsif va kontent siyosati
Muallif resursni shaxsiy fikrni ifoda etish maydoni sifatida ta’riflaydi:
“Contact Dr Jayse @jayse89”
Yuqori yangilanish chastotasi (oxirgi ma’lumot 20 Iyun, 2026 da olingan) sababli kanal doimo dolzarb va katta qamrovli bo‘lib qoladi. Analitika auditoriya kontent bilan faol hamkorlik qilishini, uni Tibbiyot toifasidagi muhim ta’sir nuqtasiga aylantirishini ko‘rsatadi.
Ma'lumot yuklanmoqda...
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| 2 | What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease (ADPKD)
B. Acute Interstitial Nephritis (AIN) secondary to Proton Pump Inhibitors
C. Acute Tubular Necrosis (ATN) from amoxicillin toxicity
D. Post-Infectious Glomerulonephritis (PIGN)
E. Benign essential renal cystic disease
Correct Answer: B. Acute Interstitial Nephritis (AIN) secondary to Proton Pump Inhibitors
Explanation: Proton pump inhibitors (omeprazole) are one of the most common causes of drug-induced AIN. It can present weeks to months after starting the drug, characterized by a progressive drop in renal function, sterile pyuria, and WBC casts. The simple cysts noted on ultrasound are common incidental findings in a 56-year-old and do not meet the criteria for ADPKD.
## Surgery & Gastroenterology
Q12. Grading and Management of Internal Haemorrhoids
A 46-year-old female complains of a persistent, painless swelling at her anal margin that prolapses continuously during defecation but reduces spontaneously into the anal canal afterward. Visual inspection confirms internal hemorrhoids located above the dentate line. She has already optimized her dietary fiber and fluid intake without symptomatic relief. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Rubber Band Ligation (RBL)
B. Further escalation of dietary fiber and daily laxatives
C. Urgent surgical Haemorrhoidectomy
D. Topical application of glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) 0.2% ointment
E. Sclerotherapy using hypertonic saline injections
Correct Answer: A. Rubber Band Ligation (RBL)
Explanation: Hemorrhoids that prolapse but reduce spontaneously are classified as Grade II internal hemorrhoids. For patients with Grade II internal hemorrhoids located safely above the dentate line who fail conservative lifestyle measures, office-based Rubber Band Ligation (RBL) is the most effective next intervention.
Q13. Acute Management of a Non-Bleeding Duodenal Ulcer
An 74-year-old male presents with a self-limiting episode of hematemesis. He undergoes an urgent upper gastrointestinal endoscopy, which reveals a 1.5 cm clean-based, non-bleeding duodenal ulcer (Forrest Class III). There is no active bleeding, no visible vessel, and no adherent clot. What is the most appropriate initial treatment strategy?
A. Immediate endoscopic mechanical clipping of the ulcer bed
B. High-dose Proton Pump Inhibitor (PPI) therapy and outpatient monitoring
C. Urgent surgical duodenotomy and ulcer plication
D. Injection of epinephrine into the four quadrants around the ulcer
E. Intravenous octreotide infusion for 72 hours
Correct Answer: B. High-dose Proton Pump Inhibitor (PPI) therapy and outpatient monitoring
Explanation: A clean-based, non-bleeding duodenal ulcer has a very low risk ($<5\%$) of re-bleeding. Endoscopic interventions (such as mechanical clipping or epinephrine injection) are not indicated for Forrest Class III ulcers. Management consists of standard high-dose acid suppression with a Proton Pump Inhibitor (PPI) and eradication of underlying causes like H. pylori or NSAIDs.
## Otolaryngology (ENT) & Breast Surgery
Q14. Airway Loss in a Deep Neck Space Infection
A 22-year-old female with a severe peritonsillar abscess (quinsy) was admitted to the emergency department, given intravenous benzylpenicillin, and scheduled for an ENT review. Over the last hour, she has rapidly deteriorated, developing severe inspiratory stridor, drooling of saliva, and intercostal recession. What is the most critical next management step?
A. Urgent Endotracheal Intubation
B. Immediate bedside Incision and Drainage (I&D) of the abscess
C. Administration of a dose of intravenous Dexamethasone
D. Urgent transfer to the operating theater for a tracheostomy
E. Nebulized adrenaline and observation in a high-dependency unit
Correct Answer: A. Urgent Endotracheal Intubation
Explanation: The development of acute stridor, drooling, and respiratory distress indicates impending upper airway occlusion. | 313 |
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| 13 | 🧠 SPINAL CORD SYNDROMES
Can You Localize the Lesion?
Mastering spinal cord syndromes is one of the fastest ways to localize neurological lesions in exams, OSCEs, and clinical practice.
⸻
1️⃣ Anterior Cord Syndrome 🔴
➊ Bilateral motor weakness below the lesion
➋ Loss of pain & temperature sensation
➌ Vibration and proprioception preserved
💡 Think: “Motor Out, Pain & Temp Out”
⸻
2️⃣ Brown-Séquard Syndrome 🔵
➊ Ipsilateral weakness + loss of vibration/proprioception
➋ Contralateral loss of pain & temperature
💡 Think: “Half & Half Syndrome”
⸻
3️⃣ Central Cord Syndrome 🟡
➊ Upper limbs affected more than lower limbs
➋ Bilateral pain & temperature loss
➌ Dorsal column functions preserved
💡 Think: “Cape Sign”
⸻
4️⃣ Posterior Cord Syndrome 🟢
➊ Loss of vibration, proprioception & fine touch
➋ Motor function preserved
➌ Sensory ataxia and positive Romberg sign
💡 Think: “Position Sense Lost”
⸻
🎯 Golden Rule
✅ Dorsal columns cross in the medulla
✅ Spinothalamic fibers cross within 1–2 segments of entry
⸻
📚 Quick Mnemonic
🔴 A = Anterior → Motor + Pain + Temp OUT
🔵 B = Brown-Séquard → Half & Half
🟡 C = Central → Cape Sign
🟢 P = Posterior → Proprioception Lost
⸻
💬 Which spinal cord syndrome do you find hardest to remember?
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| 14 | 🫀 ECG Emergencies – High-Yield Summary
Recognize the Rhythm. Act Immediately
⸻
1️⃣ Pulseless Ventricular Tachycardia (VT) ⚡
➊ Wide-complex regular tachycardia
➋ No palpable pulse
➌ Shockable rhythm
💉 Management
• Immediate defibrillation
• CPR for 2 minutes
• Epinephrine 1 mg every 3–5 min
• Amiodarone 300 mg IV
💡 Pearl:
Treat exactly like VF.
⸻
2️⃣ Ventricular Fibrillation (VF) ❤️🔥
➊ Chaotic rhythm
➋ No organized QRS complexes
➌ No pulse
💉 Management
• Immediate defibrillation
• CPR
• Epinephrine
• Amiodarone
💡 Pearl:
Shock first, drugs second.
⸻
3️⃣ Asystole ⛔
➊ Flat-line ECG
➋ No pulse
➌ Non-shockable rhythm
💉 Management
• High-quality CPR
• Epinephrine every 3–5 min
• Search for H’s & T’s
⛔ Never defibrillate true asystole.
⸻
4️⃣ Pulseless Electrical Activity (PEA) 🔍
➊ Organized ECG activity
➋ No palpable pulse
➌ Non-shockable rhythm
💉 Management
• Immediate CPR
• Epinephrine
• Treat reversible causes
💡 Pearl:
PEA = Electrical activity without mechanical contraction.
⸻
5️⃣ Torsades de Pointes 🌀
➊ Polymorphic VT
➋ Prolonged QT interval
➌ Twisting QRS complexes
💉 Management
• Magnesium sulfate 2 g IV
• Correct K⁺ and Mg²⁺
• Stop QT-prolonging drugs
• Defibrillate if pulseless
💡 Pearl:
Think prolonged QT.
⸻
6️⃣ STEMI 🚑
➊ ST elevation in contiguous leads
➋ Acute coronary occlusion
➌ Time = Muscle
💉 Management
• Aspirin immediately
• Activate cath lab
• Primary PCI preferred
• DAPT + anticoagulation
💡 Pearl:
Door-to-balloon ≤ 90 min.
⸻
7️⃣ SVT (AVNRT / AVRT) 🔄
➊ Narrow regular tachycardia
➋ Rate 150–250 bpm
➌ AV node dependent
💉 Management
• Modified Valsalva
• Adenosine 6 mg IV
• Repeat 12 mg if needed
⛔ Avoid adenosine in irregular wide-complex tachycardia.
⸻
8️⃣ Atrial Fibrillation with RVR ❤️
➊ Irregularly irregular rhythm
➋ No distinct P waves
➌ Rapid ventricular response
💉 Management
• Rate control (β-blocker / diltiazem)
• Anticoagulation assessment
• Cardioversion if unstable
💡 Pearl:
Control rate first.
⸻
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| 15 | 📢 Recommendation for Students Looking for Recent AMC Recalls & Exam-Focused Revision
One of the most common questions we receive from students is:
“Where can I find reliable recent recalls and exam-focused revision material closer to exam time?”
While our program focuses on structured teaching, classes, and comprehensive preparation, we understand that many candidates also value access to recent recall discussions and targeted revision resources.
For students looking for this additional support, we are pleased to recommend The AMC Mastery, led by Dr. Bhattaram and his team.
AMC Mastery has developed a growing reputation for providing high-yield recall discussions, exam-focused revision sessions.
You can learn more here:
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We believe students benefit most when they combine strong foundational learning with focused exam preparation and revision.
Wishing all AMC candidates success in their preparation journey.
— Dr. Jayse & Team | 432 |
| 16 | To those who has subscribed to our app and eligible for the free session please feel free message @jayse89 thanks | 439 |
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| 20 | Explanation: Visceral malignancies (indicated by the abdominal mass) produce a systemic prothrombotic, hypercoagulable state. When paired with a prolonged immobilization catalyst (a long-haul flight), the risk for deep vein thrombosis escalates exponentially.
## Musculoskeletal Medicine & Vascular Surgery
Q25. Diagnosis of Iliotibial Band (ITB) Friction Syndrome
A 24-year-old amateur athlete presents with sharp, localized lateral knee pain that occurs exclusively during long-distance running or jumping activities. On examination, there is no joint effusion, and the collateral ligaments are intact. However, his characteristic pain is precisely reproduced when the clinician applies direct lateral pressure over the lateral femoral epicondyle while passively flexing the knee from full extension past 30 degrees (Noble's Test). What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Iliotibial Band Friction Syndrome
B. Patellofemoral Pain Syndrome
C. Lateral Meniscal Tear
D. Pes Anserine Bursitis
E. Lateral Collateral Ligament Sprain
Correct Answer: A. Iliotibial Band Friction Syndrome
Explanation: Iliotibial Band (ITB) Syndrome is an overuse injury common in runners and jumpers. The ITB rubs against the lateral femoral epicondyle, with maximal impingement and pain classic at approximately 30 degrees of knee flexion, which forms the basis of Noble's diagnostic compression test.
Q26. Diagnosis of Dialysis Access Steal Syndrome
A 58-year-old end-stage renal disease patient who underwent the creation of a left radiocephalic arteriovenous (AV) fistula 4 weeks ago presents with a pale, cold, and intensely painful left hand that worsens significantly during hemodialysis sessions. On examination, the digits show delayed capillary refill. Auscultation over the fistula confirms a loud, audible bruit, but palpation demonstrates a significantly diminished thrill compared to baseline. What is the underlying pathology?
A. Dialysis Access-Associated Steal Syndrome (DASS)
B. Acute bacterial infection of the AV fistula graft
C. Complete thrombotic occlusion of the cephalic vein
D. Subclavian steal syndrome causing cerebral ischemia
E. Standard physiological maturation of a high-flow arteriovenous fistula
Correct Answer: A. Dialysis Access-Associated Steal Syndrome (DASS)
Explanation: Arteriovenous fistula creation creates a low-resistance path that can divert (or "steal") arterial blood flow away from the distal extremity, directing it into the venous system instead. This causes distal ischemia, characterized by pain, coldness, and pallor in the hand. A drop in the palpable thrill can reflect altered hemodynamics or stenosis within the circuit. | 454 |
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