AMC MCQ exam Prep by Dr Jayse
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📈 Telegram 频道 AMC MCQ exam Prep by Dr Jayse 的分析概览
频道 AMC MCQ exam Prep by Dr Jayse (@amcmcqprep) 英语 语言赛道中的 是活跃参与者。目前社区聚集了 10 351 名订阅者，在 医学 类别中位列第 2 639，并在 新加坡 地区排名第 310 位。
📊 受众指标与增长动态
自 невідомо 创建以来，项目保持高速增长，吸引了 10 351 名订阅者。
根据 06 十月, 2026 的最新数据，频道保持稳定运转。过去 30 天订阅人数变化为 -42，过去 24 小时变化为 4，整体触达仍然可观。
- 认证状态： 未认证
- 互动率 (ER)： 平均受众互动率为 5.00%。内容发布后 24 小时内通常能获得 2.02% 的反应，占订阅者总量。
- 帖子覆盖： 每篇帖子平均可获得 518 次浏览，首日通常累积 209 次浏览。
- 互动与反馈： 受众积极参与，单帖平均反应数为 2。
- 主题关注点： 内容集中在 statin, patient, mcq, symptom, examination 等核心主题上。
📝 描述与内容策略
作者将该频道定位为表达主观观点的平台：
“Contact Dr Jayse @jayse89”
凭借高频更新（最新数据采集于 07 十月, 2026），频道始终保持新鲜度与高覆盖。分析显示受众积极互动，使其成为 医学 类别中的关键影响点。
10 351
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+424 小时
-77 天
-4230 天
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频道帖子
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| 5 |  没有文字... | 352 |
| 6 | A 25‑year‑old woman with Crohn’s disease on azathioprine and sulfasalazine has normal Hb but low WBC and low platelets. What is the next step?
Stop sulfasalazine
Stop azathioprine
Check creatinine | 363 |
| 7 | Hypertensive 63 yo lives with a well husband. Had flu and covid 19 vaccines 6mos ago, DTPa 6yrs ago Recommended vaccination?
DTPa
Shingles
Pneumo
Rsv | 368 |
| 8 | 1 month old child having purulent eye discharge since day 1 of birth asking the cause?
Gonococcal
chlamydia
viral conjunctivitis
strep pneumonia conjunctivitis | 360 |
| 9 | Pregnant woman with a history of penicillin anaphylaxis is being treated with ceftriaxone for pyelonephritis. Culture shows resistance to ceftriaxone but sensitivity to penicillin and gentamicin. Clinically she is improving. What should you do?
Change to gentamicin
Continue ceftriaxone
Start penicillin | 336 |
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| 11 | 🩸 7 ABG PATTERNS YOU SHOULD RECOGNIZE INSTANTLY
⸻
1️⃣ METABOLIC ACIDOSIS
🔻 pH | 🔻 HCO₃⁻
Think: Renal failure, lactic acidosis, DKA, diarrhoea, toxins
💡 Low pH + Low HCO₃⁻ = Metabolic Acidosis
⸻
2️⃣ METABOLIC ALKALOSIS
🔺 pH | 🔺 HCO₃⁻
Think: Vomiting, NG suction, diuretics, hypokalaemia
💡 High pH + High HCO₃⁻ = Metabolic Alkalosis
⸻
3️⃣ RESPIRATORY ACIDOSIS
🔻 pH | 🔺 PaCO₂
Think: COPD, severe asthma, CNS depression, neuromuscular disease
💡 Low pH + High CO₂ = Respiratory Acidosis
⸻
4️⃣ RESPIRATORY ALKALOSIS
🔺 pH | 🔻 PaCO₂
Think: Hyperventilation, hypoxia/PE, sepsis, pain
💡 High pH + Low CO₂ = Respiratory Alkalosis
⸻
5️⃣ DIABETIC KETOACIDOSIS (DKA)
🔻 pH | 🔻 HCO₃⁻ | 🔺 Anion Gap
Look for:
• Hyperglycaemia
• Ketones
• Dehydration
• Kussmaul breathing
💡 DKA = High-anion-gap metabolic acidosis
⸻
6️⃣ SALICYLATE TOXICITY
A classic mixed acid–base disorder:
🔻 PaCO₂ → Respiratory alkalosis
🔻 HCO₃⁻ → Metabolic acidosis
💡 Both CO₂ and HCO₃⁻ low? Think salicylates.
⸻
7️⃣ TYPE 2 RESPIRATORY FAILURE
🔺 PaCO₂ + hypoxaemia
Chronic cases develop:
🔺 HCO₃⁻ from renal compensation
Think: COPD, obesity hypoventilation, neuromuscular or chest-wall disease
⸻
🎯 ABG MEMORY TRICK
Metabolic = pH and HCO₃⁻ move together ↕️
Respiratory = pH and PaCO₂ move opposite ↔️
Master this rule and ABG interpretation becomes much easier.
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Save this post for your next exam or on-call shift. 🩺 | 486 |
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| 13 | ⚡ TRIGEMINAL NEURALGIA — SMALL NERVE, BIG PAIN
Sudden, severe, electric shock-like facial pain? Think Trigeminal Neuralgia. 🧠⚡
⸻
🔵 CN V — TRIGEMINAL NERVE
The trigeminal nerve has 3 divisions:
👁️ V1 Ophthalmic → Forehead, eye & scalp
😊 V2 Maxillary → Cheek, upper lip & upper jaw
🦷 V3 Mandibular → Lower jaw, lower lip & teeth
⸻
⚡ CLASSIC FEATURES
➊ Brief attacks of intense, shock-like facial pain
➋ Usually unilateral
➌ Often affects V2 or V3
➍ Triggered by normally harmless stimulation
💡 Think: “Electric shocks across the face.”
⸻
🎯 COMMON TRIGGERS
• Light touch
• Talking or chewing
• Brushing teeth
• Cold wind
• Shaving or applying makeup
⸻
🧠 MOST COMMON CAUSE
Neurovascular compression of the trigeminal nerve near its root entry zone.
⸻
🔍 DIAGNOSIS
Usually based on the classic clinical history and neurological examination.
🚩 Consider secondary causes when there are atypical features such as sensory loss, bilateral symptoms, or younger age at presentation.
⸻
💊 TREATMENT
First-line: Carbamazepine
Alternative: Oxcarbazepine
Persistent or refractory symptoms may require additional medical therapy or procedures such as microvascular decompression.
⸻
🎯 HIGH-YIELD PEARL
Brief + unilateral + electric shock-like facial pain + trigger zones = think Trigeminal Neuralgia.
Aumedprep.com.au | 844 |
| 14 | Internal branch → sensory above vocal cords
Loss of laryngeal sensation → aspiration risk
⸻
Thyroid & ENT Surgical Anatomy
Superior thyroid artery → close to external branch of superior laryngeal nerve
Inferior thyroid artery → relationship with recurrent laryngeal nerve
Thyroidectomy complication + hoarseness → RLN injury
Thyroidectomy + inability to produce high-pitched sounds → external SLN injury
⸻
Ludwig Angina ⭐⭐⭐
Bilateral submandibular/sublingual infection → Ludwig angina
Dental infection → floor-of-mouth cellulitis → Ludwig angina
“Woody” induration of floor of mouth → Ludwig angina
Tongue elevation → Ludwig angina
Airway compromise → major danger
Usually odontogenic → mandibular molar infection
⸻
Parotitis
Painful parotid swelling + fever → parotitis
Purulent drainage from Stensen duct → bacterial parotitis
Stensen duct opens opposite upper second molar → parotid gland
Dehydrated hospitalized patient → bacterial parotitis risk
Mumps → bilateral parotitis + fever
⸻
Facial Nerve ⭐⭐⭐
CN VII → facial expression
Bell palsy → LMN facial nerve palsy
Entire ipsilateral face affected → Bell palsy
Cannot wrinkle forehead + cannot close eye + drooping mouth → LMN CN VII lesion
Forehead spared → UMN lesion/stroke
Bell palsy treatment → corticosteroids ± antivirals depending on presentation
Ramsay Hunt syndrome → vesicles in ear + ipsilateral facial paralysis
Ramsay Hunt → VZV reactivation
⸻
Bell Palsy vs Stroke ⭐⭐⭐
Bell palsy:
Forehead + eye closure + lower face all affected
UMN stroke:
Forehead relatively spared + contralateral lower facial weakness
⸻
Ramsay Hunt Syndrome
Facial paralysis + painful vesicles around ear → Ramsay Hunt
Varicella-zoster virus → Ramsay Hunt
Geniculate ganglion involvement → Ramsay Hunt
Can cause hearing loss/tinnitus/vertigo → Ramsay Hunt
⸻
Parotid Tumors
Most common benign salivary gland tumor → pleomorphic adenoma
Painless slow-growing parotid mass → pleomorphic adenoma
Facial nerve weakness + parotid mass → malignant salivary gland tumor
Facial nerve involvement in parotid mass → concerning for malignancy
🔥 20 Ultra-HY ENT Buzzwords
Bulging TM → Acute otitis media
Pain with tragal movement → Otitis externa
Foul-smelling otorrhea + white keratin → Cholesteatoma
4-kHz notch → Noise-induced hearing loss
Carhart notch → Otosclerosis
Weber → affected ear → Conductive hearing loss
Weber → unaffected ear → Sensorineural hearing loss
Vertigo + tinnitus + fluctuating hearing loss → Ménière disease
Positional vertigo + positive Dix-Hallpike → BPPV
Unilateral SNHL → Vestibular schwannoma
Bilateral vestibular schwannomas → NF2
Aspirin + asthma + nasal polyps → AERD
Hot potato voice + uvular deviation → Peritonsillar abscess
Drooling + tripod + thumbprint → Epiglottitis
Barking cough + steeple sign → Croup
Foul unilateral nasal discharge in child → Foreign body
Hoarseness after thyroidectomy → Recurrent laryngeal nerve injury
Cannot produce high-pitched sounds → External superior laryngeal nerve injury
Woody floor of mouth + dental infection → Ludwig angina
Facial paralysis + ear vesicles → Ramsay Hunt syndrome
#amcmcq | 705 |
| 15 | Question 12
A 72-year-old man develops sudden left-sided weakness and slurred speech 90 minutes ago. CT brain shows no haemorrhage. There are no contraindications. What is the most appropriate next step?
A. IV thrombolysis (alteplase/tenecteplase) if within the eligible time window ✓ Correct
B. Aspirin only, thrombolysis not indicated
C. Immediate anticoagulation with warfarin
D. Wait 24 hours before any treatment or imaging
E. Discharge home with GP follow-up
Explanation
For acute ischaemic stroke presenting within the thrombolysis window (generally up to 4.5 hours from onset, subject to eligibility criteria) with no haemorrhage on CT, IV thrombolysis is indicated. Large vessel occlusion should also prompt consideration of endovascular clot retrieval.
Question 13
A 45-year-old man has 3 months of retrosternal burning worse after meals and when lying flat, with no red flag symptoms (no dysphagia, weight loss, or GI bleeding). What is the most appropriate initial management?
A. Urgent endoscopy before any treatment
B. Trial of a proton pump inhibitor plus lifestyle advice ✓ Correct
C. Long-term antibiotics for H. pylori regardless of testing
D. Barium swallow as first-line investigation
E. Immediate referral for antireflux surgery
Explanation
In a patient with typical GORD symptoms and no alarm features, empirical treatment with a PPI trial and lifestyle modification (weight loss, avoiding late meals, elevating the head of bed) is appropriate first-line management; endoscopy is reserved for red flags or treatment failure.
Question 14
A 30-year-old woman has fatigue and pallor. Investigations show microcytic hypochromic anaemia, low ferritin, and low serum iron with high total iron-binding capacity. What is the most appropriate next step?
A. Start oral iron supplementation and investigate the underlying cause of iron deficiency ✓ Correct
B. Start vitamin B12 injections
C. Immediate blood transfusion regardless of symptoms
D. Start folic acid alone
E. No treatment needed, recheck in 1 year
Explanation
Low ferritin with microcytic anaemia confirms iron deficiency. Management includes oral iron replacement and, importantly, investigating the underlying cause (e.g. menstrual loss, GI blood loss, dietary deficiency) rather than treating iron deficiency in isolation.
Question 15
A 55-year-old man with no significant renal or GI comorbidity presents with sudden severe pain and swelling of the first metatarsophalangeal joint. Serum urate is elevated. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment for this acute episode?
A. Allopurinol started immediately during the acute attack
B. NSAID (e.g. naproxen) or colchicine ✓ Correct
C. IV antibiotics
D. Immediate joint replacement
E. Long-term low-dose aspirin
Explanation
Acute gout is treated with NSAIDs, colchicine, or corticosteroids (oral or intra-articular), chosen based on comorbidities. Urate-lowering therapy such as allopurinol is not started during an acute flare, as it can prolong or worsen the attack, but is introduced later once the flare has settled.
Question 16
A 60-year-old woman presents with sudden severe unilateral eye pain, blurred vision, haloes around lights, a fixed mid-dilated pupil, and a red eye with a hard globe on palpation. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute angle-closure glaucoma ✓ Correct
B. Anterior uveitis
C. Bacterial conjunctivitis
D. Retinal detachment
E. Corneal abrasion
Explanation
The combination of severe pain, haloes around lights, a fixed mid-dilated pupil, and a firm globe is classic for acute angle-closure glaucoma, an ophthalmic emergency requiring urgent IOP-lowering treatment and same-day ophthalmology referral.
Question 17
A 3-year-old has ear pain, fever, and irritability. Otoscopy shows a bulging, erythematous tympanic membrane with loss of light reflex. The child is systemically well otherwise. | 640 |
| 16 | Preparing for the AMC MCQ? Study smarter with AumedPrep. 🩺
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✅ Detailed explanations, so you understand why each answer is right or wrong
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Whether it's your first attempt at AMC MCQ Part 1 or you're aiming to lift your score, AumedPrep gives you the practice, feedback and support to walk into the exam with confidence.
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Don't just answer questions. Learn, improve, and pass.
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Aumedprep.com.au | 637 |
| 17 | Preparing for the AMC MCQ? Study smarter with AumedPrep. 🩺
Most apps give you a question bank and leave you to figure out the rest. AumedPrep goes further.
What you get:
✅ AMC-style MCQs
✅ Detailed explanations, so you understand why each answer is right or wrong
✅ Optional live discussion sessions with experienced mentors
✅ Progress tracking to show you where to focus next
✅ Built specifically for International Medical Graduates
Whether it's your first attempt at AMC MCQ Part 1 or you're aiming to lift your score, AumedPrep gives you the practice, feedback and support to walk into the exam with confidence.
📲 Download AumedPrep on the App Store today.
( windows, android and Apple iOS )
Don't just answer questions. Learn, improve, and pass.
#AMC #AMCMCQ #IMG #InternationalMedicalGraduates #MedicalExams #AumedPrep #MedStudent #DoctorsInAustralia
Aumedprep.com.au | 639 |
| 18 | 🧬 MEN Syndromes — Distinguish Them in 60 Seconds
⸻
1️⃣ MEN 1 — Wermer Syndrome
The “3 Ps”
🔸 Pituitary Tumour → e.g., Prolactinoma
🔸 Parathyroid Hyperplasia → most common initial presentation → hypercalcaemia
🔸 Pancreatic Islet Cell Tumours → Gastrinoma (Zollinger–Ellison) + Insulinoma
🧬 Gene: MEN1 (Chromosome 11) → Tumour suppressor mutation
⸻
2️⃣ MEN 2A — Sipple Syndrome
The “2 Ps + 1 M”
🔸 Parathyroid Hyperplasia → hypercalcaemia
🔸 Phaeochromocytoma → adrenal gland tumour
🔸 Medullary Thyroid Carcinoma (MTC)
🧬 Gene: RET proto-oncogene (Chromosome 10) → Activating mutation
⸻
3️⃣ MEN 2B — Mucosal & Marfanoid
The “1 P + 2 Ms”
🔸 Phaeochromocytoma
🔸 Medullary Thyroid Carcinoma → most aggressive form, early onset
🔸 Mucosal Neuromas + Marfanoid Habitus
⚠️ NO parathyroid disease — key distinguishing feature!
🧬 Gene: RET proto-oncogene (Chromosome 10) → Activating mutation
⸻
4️⃣ The Master Comparison
➊ MEN 1 → Pituitary + Parathyroid + Pancreas (MEN1 gene, Chr 11)
➋ MEN 2A → MTC + Pheo + Parathyroid (RET gene, Chr 10)
➌ MEN 2B → MTC + Pheo + Neuromas/Marfanoid — NO parathyroid (RET gene, Chr 10)
⸻
🧩 Exam Pearls
🔹 MEN 2B is the MOST aggressive — presents earliest with MTC
🔹 Phaeochromocytoma rule → ALWAYS give alpha-blocker BEFORE beta-blocker to prevent hypertensive crisis
🔹 MEN 1 vs MEN 2 genetics → Tumour suppressor (MEN1) vs Activating oncogene (RET)
🔹 Hypercalcaemia in MEN → think Parathyroid (MEN 1 and 2A only — NOT 2B)
⸻
Aumedprep.com.au
⸻
#MENSyndrome #Endocrinology #MedicalEducation #doctor | 594 |
| 19 | Preparing for the AMC MCQ? Study smarter with AumedPrep. 🩺
Most apps give you a question bank and leave you to figure out the rest. AumedPrep goes further.
What you get:
✅ AMC-style MCQs
✅ Detailed explanations, so you understand why each answer is right or wrong
✅ Optional live discussion sessions with experienced mentors
✅ Progress tracking to show you where to focus next
✅ Built specifically for International Medical Graduates
Whether it's your first attempt at AMC MCQ Part 1 or you're aiming to lift your score, AumedPrep gives you the practice, feedback and support to walk into the exam with confidence.
📲 Download AumedPrep on the App Store today.
( windows, android and Apple iOS )
Don't just answer questions. Learn, improve, and pass.
#AMC #AMCMCQ #IMG #InternationalMedicalGraduates #MedicalExams #AumedPrep #MedStudent #DoctorsInAustralia | 491 |
| 20 | What is the most appropriate initial management per Australian guidelines?
A. Immediate IV antibiotics
B. Analgesia with a watchful waiting approach, reserving antibiotics for red flags or non-resolution ✓ Correct
C. Grommet insertion immediately
D. Oral antihistamines only
E. Nasal decongestant spray as sole treatment
Explanation
For most children over 2 years with uncomplicated acute otitis media who are systemically well, Australian guidelines support analgesia (e.g. paracetamol/ibuprofen) and a watchful waiting approach, as most cases resolve spontaneously; antibiotics are reserved for children under 6 months, systemically unwell children, bilateral disease in young children, otorrhoea, or symptoms not improving after 48 hours.
Question 18
A 40-year-old man has sudden severe colicky loin-to-groin pain, nausea, and microscopic haematuria on urinalysis. What is the most appropriate initial imaging investigation?
A. Non-contrast CT kidneys-ureters-bladder (CT KUB) ✓ Correct
B. MRI abdomen
C. Barium enema
D. Plain abdominal X-ray alone
E. No imaging required
Explanation
For suspected renal colic, non-contrast CT KUB is the investigation of choice, offering high sensitivity and specificity for detecting ureteric and renal calculi and identifying complications such as obstruction.
Question 19
A 32-year-old asymptomatic woman attends for routine cervical screening in Australia. She has never had an abnormal result. What is the recommended screening approach under the current National Cervical Screening Program?
A. Annual Pap smear from age 18
B. Primary HPV test every 5 years from age 25 ✓ Correct
C. Pap smear every 2 years from age 20
D. No screening required until age 50
E. HPV test every 12 months regardless of results
Explanation
Australia's National Cervical Screening Program uses primary HPV testing every 5 years for people with a cervix aged 25–74 who are asymptomatic and have no history of high-grade abnormality, replacing the previous 2-yearly Pap smear program.
Question 20
A patient on warfarin for atrial fibrillation presents with an INR of 9.0 and minor bruising but no active bleeding. What is the most appropriate management?
A. Continue warfarin at the same dose
B. Withhold warfarin and give oral vitamin K ✓ Correct
C. Give fresh frozen plasma immediately regardless of bleeding
D. Increase the warfarin dose
E. No action needed, recheck INR in 4 weeks
Explanation
For an INR this high without significant bleeding, guidelines recommend withholding warfarin and giving oral vitamin K to reduce the INR and bleeding risk, with close monitoring; prothrombinex/FFP is reserved for major or life-threatening bleeding. | 472 |
