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Which one of the following represents the time from infection to occurrence of symptoms?
Asymmetrical growth restriction is characterized by a reduction in:
A woman is found to have oligohydramnios at 30wks, the most likely cause is:
A 31-year-old G1P0 at 33weeks gestation is admitted for PROM. The following is correct:
One week later, she returns with cx is 2cm dilatation, cephalic presentation, station -1
Fetal movement is slightly decreased. Your management plan should include:
Questions 36-37: A 32-year-old G3P2 at 40wks +5 had PV of 1cm dilated cervix, cephalic
presentation, good fetal movement.
36. Next step in the management of this patient:
Corticosteroids administered in PTL decrease rates of RDS if birth is delayed at least:
A PG with mitral stenosis, and fully dilated cervix for one hour, head station +1, direct
occipito anterior, is best delivered by:
AFV is a balance between production and resorption. Primary mechanism of resorption:
An 8 weeks PG, 23-year- old, presents with intractable vomiting for 3 days and marked
sense of fatigue. Her tongue is dry and urine analysis showed ketonuria. Best management:
Proteinuria in pregnancy may be due to all the following EXCEPT:
An asymptomatic 22-year- old PG presents for ANC. She had had a lower leg thrombosis
3yrs ago when on COCPs. What therapy would you recommend for her condition?
Hyperemesis gravidarum is characterized by one of the following features:
Which of the following is responsible for morning sickness during pregnancy?
Commonest cause of decreased hemoglobin concentration level during pregnancy?
