Case-based MCQ
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Enhance Your Medical Expertise with Case Based MCQ – Your Go-To Telegram Channel for Challenging, Real-World MCQs and Continuous Learning. Admin: @Mohamm_ADs
Показати більше📈 Аналітичний огляд Telegram-каналу Case-based MCQ
Канал Case-based MCQ (@casebasedmcq) у мовному сегменті Англійська є активним учасником. На даний момент спільнота об'єднує 18 392 підписників, посідаючи 1 320 місце в категорії Медицина та 21 702 місце у регіоні Індія.
📊 Показники аудиторії та динаміка
З моменту свого створення невідомо, проект продемонстрував стрімке зростання, зібравши аудиторію у 18 392 підписників.
За останніми даними від 10 листопада, 2026, канал демонструє стабільну активність. Хоча за останні 30 днів спостерігається зміна кількості учасників на -193, а за останні 24 години на -3, загальне охоплення залишається високим.
- Статус верифікації: Не верифікований
- Рівень залученості (ER): Середній показник залученості аудиторії становить 1.50%. Протягом перших 24 годин після публікації контент зазвичай збирає 0.70% реакцій від загальної кількості підписників.
- Охоплення публікацій: В середньому кожен допис отримує 275 переглядів. Протягом першої доби публікація в середньому набирає 128 переглядів.
- Реакції та взаємодія: Аудиторія активно підтримує контент: середня кількість реакцій на один пост – 1.
- Тематичні інтереси: Контент зосереджений навколо ключових тем, таких як boardvital, bmj, journal, usmle, drug.
📝 Опис та контентна політика
Автор описує ресурс як майданчик для висловлення суб'єктивної думки:
“Enhance Your Medical Expertise with Case Based MCQ – Your Go-To Telegram Channel for Challenging, Real-World MCQs and Continuous Learning.
Admin: @Mohamm_ADs”
Завдяки високій частоті оновлень (останні дані отримано 11 листопада, 2026), канал підтримує актуальність та високий рівень охоплення публікацій. Аналітика показує, що аудиторія активно взаємодіє з контентом, що робить його важливою точкою впливу в категорії Медицина.
18 392
Підписники
-324 години
-527 днів
-19330 днів
Архів дописів
18 389
🇨🇦 MCCQE1,2 | #Case_235 | #answer
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✅ B
🔎 Explanation
The timing of the symptoms (starting about 2 days after paroxetine was stopped) and the symptoms (headache, light headedness) are consistent with SSRI discontinuation syndrome. This syndrome is more likely with abrupt withdrawal, after prolonged treatment, at higher doses.
18 389
🇨🇦 MCCQE1,2 | #Case_235
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A 28-year-old female complains of generalized headache, dizziness (characterized as lightheadedness), and generally not feeling well for 3 days. This started at the same time as her menses and coincided with a major examination in a college class she is taking. Her review of symptoms is otherwise negative. Her past medical history includes a recent acute onset of low back pain related to lifting, and a recent depressive episode which responded well to medication. Her current medications include an oral contraceptive which she has taken for 2 years, a corticosteroid nasal spray, and ibuprofen for the past 2 weeks. She was on paroxetine (Paxil), 30 mg/day, for 7 months, but this was stopped 5 days ago because of sexual dysfunction. Because of her symptoms she has not taken any medications for the past 2 days. Since then the headache has eased substantially, but the feeling of lightheadedness has remained. A physical examination is unremarkable. Which one of the following is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
a) Allergic rhinitis
b) Paroxetine withdrawal
c) Serotonin syndrome
d) Viral infection
e) Stress18 389
🇨🇦 MCCQE1,2 | #Case_234 | #answer
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✅ E
🔎 Explanation
This patient’s history of smoking and COPD, the presentation with shortness of breath, decreased breath sounds on the right, and hyperresonance to percussion point to a diagnosis of spontaneous pneumothorax. COPD is the most common cause of secondary spontaneous pneumothorax accounting for 60% of cases on average. Rupture of apical blebs is the usual cause. Out of the choices given, oxygen administration at 3L/min nasal cannula (choice E) is the most appropriate initial step in management of this patient. Oxygen treats hypoxemia and is associated with a 4-fold increase in the rate of pleural air absorption compared with room air alone. If the patient doesn't respond to oxygen supplementation, chest tube placement would be the most appropriate next-in-line treatment.
⚠ Albuterol inhaler, ipratropium, and oral prednisone (choice A) would be appropriate for the management of COPD exacerbation.
⚠ Sputum cultures and initiation of azithromycin (choice B) would be appropriate if community acquired pneumonia is suspected. This patient’s clinical scenario suggests spontaneous pneumothorax.
⚠ Order chest radiograph (choice C) should be part of the management plan of this patient’s condition, but oxygen should be given prior to investigations.
⚠ Intubation and mechanical ventilation with 100% oxygen (choice D) is incorrect. The appropriate initial oxygen supplementation should be done by nasal cannula.
🔖 Key point:
Sudden increase of shortness of breath, unilateral decreased breath sounds on auscultation and hyperresonance to
percussion in a patient with COPD history is suggestive of spontaneous pneumothorax. Oxygen supplementation (through a nasal cannula) is an appropriate initial treatment of spontaneous pneumothorax.
18 389
🇨🇦 MCCQE1,2 | #Case_234
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A 69-year-old male presents to the emergency department with complaints of suddenly increased shortness of breath. He was diagnosed with COPD 10 years ago. His medications are tiotropium, formoterol, and albuterol. Usually when he is short of breath he uses albuterol, which alleviates the symptoms. However, "it has not helped much this time." He has smoked 40 packs of cigarettes a year for the last 45 years. On physical examination he has hyperresonance to percussion and decreased breath sounds on auscultation at the right side. His oxygen saturation is 87%. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
a) Albuterol inhaler, ipratropium, and oral prednisone
b) Sputum cultures and initiation of azithromycin
c) Order chest radiograph
d) Intubation and mechanical ventilation with 100% oxygen
e) Oxygen administration at 3L/min nasal cannula
18 389
🇨🇦 MCCQE1,2 | #Case_233 | #answer
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✅ C
🔎 Explanation
At least one million Canadians suffer from urinary incontinence. In the neurologically intact individual the most common subtypes are stress incontinence, which occurs with coughing or lifting; urge incontinence, which occurs when patients sense the urge to void but are unable to inhibit leakage long enough to reach the toilet; and overflow incontinence, which
occurs when the bladder cannot empty normally and becomes overdistended. The term functional incontinence is applied to those cases where lower urinary tract function is intact but other factors such as immobility and severe cognitive impairment lead to incontinence. This patient has mild urge incontinence. The first approach to this problem should be behavioral. In a mild case such as this, a cure can be expected, with success rates of 30%-90% in published studies. For more severe cases, various pharmacologic agents, including anticholinergics, are useful. Failure of these modalities should lead to urodynamic testing and consideration of surgery
18 389
🇨🇦 MCCQE1,2 | #Case_233
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A 70-year-old white female complains of two episodes of urinary incontinence. On both occasions she was unable to reach a bathroom in time to prevent loss of urine. The first episode occurred when she was in her car and the second while she was in a shopping mall. She is reluctant to go out because of this problem.The most likely cause of her problem is:
a) Overflow incontinence
b) Stress incontinence
c) Urge incontinence
d) Functional incontinence
18 389
🇨🇦 MCCQE1,2 | #Case_232 | #answer
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✅ D
🔎 Explanation
Angina decubitus (choice D) is the correct answer. It is angina that occurs when a person is lying down (not necessarily only at night) without any apparent cause. Angina decubitus occurs because gravity redistributes fluids in the body. This redistribution makes the heart work harder.
⚠ Prinzmetal’s angina (choice A) is induced by coronary artery spasm which is reflected by either permanent blockade or blockade due to plaque. This usually occurs at rest. Its occurrence is increased in people who smoke, it may occur when patients are sitting or standing, this is not the case for angina decubitus.
⚠ Unstable angina (choice B) occurs at rest in patients with significant coronary artery disease. Angina occurs frequently for extended periods of more than 20 minutes with a week’s presence.
⚠ Stable angina (choice C) occurs due to exertion or stress. This type of angina is relieved by rest or by nitrates.
⚠ Variant angina (choice E) is just another name for Prinzmetal’s angina
18 389
🇨🇦 MCCQE1,2 | #Case_232
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A 67-year-old male presents with complaint of anginal chest discomfort that comes and goes. He states it always happens when he is lying in his bed or watching TV lying on his couch and is unrelated to his exercise. Identify the type of angina patient is experiencing:
a) Prinzmetal’s angina
b) Unstable angina
c) Stable angina
d) Angina decubitus
e) Variant angina
18 389
🇨🇦 MCCQE1,2 | #Case_231 | #answer
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✅ E
🔎 Explanation
The patient described has an inflammatory myopathy of the polymyositis/dermatomyositis (choice E) group. Proximal muscle involvement and elevation of serum muscle enzymes such as creatine kinase and aldolase are characteristic. Corticosteroids are the accepted treatment of choice.
⚠ It is extremely unlikely that Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy (choice A) would present after age 30.
⚠ Patients with myasthenia gravis (choice B) characteristically have ocular involvement, often presenting as ptosis and/or diplopia.
⚠ In amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (choice C) an abnormal neurologic examination with findings of upper or lower motor neuron dysfunction is characteristic.
⚠ The predominant symptom of aseptic necrosis (choice D) of the femoral head is pain rather than proximal muscle weakness. Elevated muscle enzymes are not characteristic
18 389
🇨🇦 MCCQE1,2 | #Case_231
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A 44-year-old black female reports diffuse aching, especially in her upper legs and shoulders. The aching has increased, and she now has trouble going up and down stairs because of weakness. She has no visual symptoms, and a neurologic examination is normal except for proximal muscle weakness. Laboratory tests reveal elevated levels of serum creatine kinase and aldolase. Her symptoms improve significantly when she is treated with corticosteroids. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy
b) Myasthenia gravis
c) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
d) Aseptic necrosis of the femoral head
e) Polymyositis18 389
🇨🇦 MCCQE1,2 | #Case_230 | #answer
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✅ B
🔎 Explanation
The patient has Dupuytren’s contracture, which is most common in men over 40 years of age. It is a progressive condition that causes the fibrous fascia of the palmar surface to shorten and thicken. It initially can be managed with observation, but corticosteroid injection and surgery may be needed. The condition will regress in 10% of patients. There is a 3%-33% prevalence of Dupuytren’s contracture in patients with diabetes mellitus; however, these patients tend to have a mild form of the disease with slow progression.; however, these patients tend to have a mild form of the disease with slow progression.
18 389
🇨🇦 MCCQE1,2 | #Case_230
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A 43-year-old male complains of difficulty washing his face and combing his hair with his right hand. On examination a nodule, band, and slight contracture are noted in the palm proximal to the fourth finger. This patient’s condition is associated with which one of the following?
a) Hyperparathyroidism
b) Diabetes mellitus
c) Hyperthyroidism
d) Hypothyroidism
e) Adrenal insufficiency
18 389
🇨🇦 MCCQE1,2 | #Case_229 | #answer
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✅ C
🔎 Explanation
Although this patient has had a prior cesarean section, the possibility of a uterine scar separation is low. With the
presence of ruptured membranes (ROM), a complete previa is unlikely. Although the uterus is tender, the patient is afebrile. There is literature to suggest that prolonged preterm ROM is associated with an increased risk of abruptio placentae.
⚠ Ruptured membranes with a complete previa is very unlikely.
⚠ Chorioamnionitis can be a complication of prolonged preterm rupture of membranes. It can be associated with contractions and uterine pain, but is usually not associated with vaginal bleeding.
⚠ Uterine scar separation can occur with a prior cesarean, but usually occurs in active labor. This patient is showing
signs of early uterine activity at 32 weeks’ gestation, making this diagnosis unlikely.
⚠ HELLP syndrome is hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets
18 389
🇨🇦 MCCQE1,2 | #Case_229
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At 32 weeks’ estimated gestational age, a 26-year-old multipara has been hospitalized for 10 days for premature rupture of membranes (PROM). She had a previous LTCS (Low Transverse Cesarean Section) because of arrested dilation. For 2 hours she has had light vaginal bleeding and contractions every 15 minutes. Over the past 30 minutes the bleeding has increased slightly, and she experiences lower abdominal pain between contractions. Her temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F). The uterus is tender and the fetal heart rate is 170 bpm. Platelet count is 130x109/L, leukocyte count is 14.3x109/L, serum fibrinogen is 225 mg/dl, and the assay for fibrin split products is positive. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Complete placenta previa
b) Chorioamnionitis
c) Abruptio placentae
d) Uterine scar dehiscence
e) HELLP syndrome
18 389
🇨🇦 MCCQE1,2 | #Case_228 | #answer
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✅ A
🔎 Explanation
Cellulitis in patients after breast lumpectomy is thought to be related to lymphedema. Axillary dissection and radiation predispose to these infections. Non-group A hemolytic Streptococcus is the most common organism associated with this infection. The onset is often several weeks to several months after surgery. Pneumococcus is more frequently a cause of periorbital cellulitis. It is also seen in patients who have bacteremia with immunocompromised status. Immunocompromising conditions would include diabetes mellitus, alcoholism, lupus, nephritic syndrome, and some hematologic cancers.
Clostridium and Escherichia coli are most frequently associated with crepitant cellulitis and tissue necrosis. Pasteurella multocida cellulitis is most frequently associated with animal bites, especially cat bites.
18 389
🇨🇦 MCCQE1,2 | #Case_228
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A 55-year-old white female presents with redness at the scar from a lumpectomy performed for stage I cancer of her right breast 4 months ago. The patient has completed radiation treatments to the breast. She is afebrile and there is no axillary adenopathy. There is no wound drainage, crepitance, or bullous lesions. Which of the following organisms would be the most likely cause of cellulitis in this patient?
a) Non-group A Streptococcus
b) Pneumococcus
c) Clostridium perfringens
d) Escherichia coli
e) Pasteurella multocida
18 389
🇨🇦 MCCQE1,2 | #Case_227 | #answer
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✅ D
🔎 Explanation
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) (choice D) is a marker for colon, esophageal, and hepatic cancers. It is expressed in normal mucosal cells and is overexpressed in adenocarcinoma, especially colon cancer. Though not specific for colon cancer, levels above 10 ng/mL are rarely due to benign disease. CEA levels typically return to normal within 4-6 weeks
after successful surgical resection.
⚠ Prostrate-specific antigen (PSA) (choice A) is a marker that is used to screen for prostate cancer. It is elevated in more than 70% of organ-confined prostrate cancers.
⚠ Cancer antigen 27-29 (CA 27-29) (choice B) is a tumor marker for breast cancer. It is elevated in about 33% of
early-stage cancers and about 67% of late-stage breast cancers
⚠ CA-125 (choice C) is a marker for ovarian cancer. Although it is elevated in 85% of ovarian cancers, it is elevated in only 50% of early-stage ovarian cancers.
⚠ Alpha-fetoprotein (choice E) is a marker for hepatocellular carcinoma and nonseminomatous germ cell tumor, and is elevated in 80% of hepatocellular carcinomas
18 389
🇨🇦 MCCQE1,2 | #Case_227
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A 57-year-old black female has a partial resection of the colon for cancer. The surgical specimen has clean margins, and there is no lymph node involvement. There is no evidence of metastasis. You recommend periodic colonoscopy for surveillance, and also plan to monitor which one of the following tumor markers for recurrence?
a) Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)
b) Cancer antigen 27-29 (CA 27-29)
c) Cancer antigen 125 (CA-125)
d) Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
e) Alpha-fetoprotein
18 389
🇨🇦 MCCQE1,2 | #Case_226 | #answer
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✅ C
🔎 Explanation
The key to making a diagnosis of imperforate hymen, aside from the obvious finding on physical examination, lies in the systematic drawing of inferences. One can speculate that this patient’s recurrent crescendo abdominal cramping represents six menstrual sheddings, with no egress from the body. Her delay in menarche, despite normal growth parameters, offers another clue that the structural amenorrhea is present. Amounts of retained blood vary among patients; up to 3000 mL have been reported. A large volume can accumulate without causing any permanent damage, and subsequent fertility is usually normal. Hymenotomy will relieve the pressure, and normal menses should ensue
18 389
🇨🇦 MCCQE1,2 | #Case_226
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A 13-year-old white female reports a 6 month history of intermittent abdominal cramping, with each episode becoming progressively worse. Based on her history, there is no obvious relationship to eating, voiding, or defecating. She report that she has not yet begun menstruating and is not sexually active. Her weight has been stable. She appears to be in mild emotional distress about being the “last girl in her class to have a period”. She is in no physical discomfort and her vital signs are normal. Secondary sexual characteristics appear to be developing normally. She is in the 57th percentile for height and the 65th percentile for weight. A complete physical examination confirms your presumptive diagnosis. The therapeutic procedure of choice would be:
a) Appendectomy
b) Colonoscopy
c) Hymenotomy
d) Cystoscopy
e) Paracentesis
