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🛑 19 MCQ for lec 6☝🏻

1. What is the primary focus of the lecture? A) Protein synthesis in bacteria B) Mycolic acid and arabinogalactan biosynthesis inhibition in mycobacteria C) Viral replication mechanisms D) Fungal cell wall synthesis Answer: B --- 2. Which disease is most commonly associated with Mycobacteria? A) Malaria B) Tuberculosis C) Influenza D) Tetanus Answer: B --- 3. Mycolic acids are unique to which group of bacteria? A) Streptococci B) Mycobacteria C) Bacilli D) Clostridia Answer: B --- 4. What type of molecules are mycolic acids? A) Short-chain fatty acids B) Polysaccharides C) Long-chain fatty acids D) Amino acids Answer: C --- 5. What is the main role of mycolic acids in the cell wall? A) Energy production B) Protein storage C) Contribution to impermeability of the cell wall D) DNA replication Answer: C --- 6. What is arabinogalactan? A) A protein B) A nucleic acid C) A polysaccharide D) A lipid Answer: C --- 7. What does arabinogalactan link in the mycobacterial cell wall? A) DNA to RNA B) Mycolic acids to peptidoglycan C) Proteins to lipids D) Polysaccharides to proteins Answer: B --- 8. Why is arabinogalactan important for mycobacteria? A) It helps in ATP synthesis B) It maintains cell wall integrity and properties C) It replicates the genome D) It transports nutrients Answer: B --- 9. Which inhibitor targets arabinogalactan biosynthesis? A) Isoniazid B) Penicillin C) Ethambutol D) Rifampicin Answer: C --- 10. Which inhibitor targets mycolic acid biosynthesis? A) Ethambutol B) Streptomycin C) Isoniazid D) Tetracycline Answer: C --- 11. The biosynthesis pathways of mycolic acids and arabinogalactan involve: A) Only one enzyme B) Key enzymes and multiple steps C) No enzymes D) Only ribosomal steps Answer: B --- 12. Inhibitors of mycolic acid and arabinogalactan biosynthesis act by: A) Enhancing cell wall synthesis B) Targeting specific enzymes in the pathways C) Increasing bacterial growth D) Activating toxin production Answer: B --- 13. In tuberculosis treatment, mycolic acid and arabinogalactan inhibitors are often used in: A) Single-drug therapy B) Combination therapies C) Vaccines only D) Supportive care only Answer: B --- 14. What is a major clinical concern regarding these inhibitors? A) They are too expensive B) Emergence of drug resistance C) They kill human cells D) They have no side effects Answer: B --- 15. The unique cell wall composition of mycobacteria makes them: A) Easily stainable B) Naturally resistant to many antibiotics C) Fast-growing D) Non-pathogenic Answer: B --- 16. Mycolic acids contribute to the cell wall’s: A) Permeability B) Impermeability C) Flexibility D) Porin channels Answer: B --- 17. Arabinogalactan is part of which larger structure? A) Cytoplasmic membrane B) Peptidoglycan–arabinogalactan–mycolic acid complex C) Ribosome D) Nucleoid Answer: B --- 18. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an inhibitor in the lecture? A) Ethambutol B) Isoniazid C) Vancomycin D) Both A and B are mentioned Answer: C --- 19. Why target mycolic acid and arabinogalactan biosynthesis? A) They are unique to mycobacteria B) They are essential for cell wall integrity C) They are not present in human cells D) All of the above Answer: D ---

🛑 40 MCQ fir lec 1

· C) Increased toxicity to humans · D) Reduced absorption Answer: B --- 24. Methicillin is an example of: · A) Natural antibiotic · B) Semi-synthetic antibiotic · C) Synthetic antimicrobial agent · D) Antifungal agent Answer: B --- 25. Synthetic antimicrobial agents are: · A) Derived from bacterial cultures · B) Completely produced by chemical synthesis · C) Always less effective than natural antibiotics · D) Only used topically Answer: B --- 26. Which of the following is a synthetic antimicrobial agent? · A) Penicillin · B) Streptomycin · C) Quinolones · D) Erythromycin Answer: C --- 27. Sulfonamides belong to which source category? · A) Natural (microbial) sources · B) Semi-synthetic antibiotics · C) Synthetic antimicrobial agents · D) Antiviral drugs Answer: C --- 28. Metronidazole is classified as a: · A) Natural antibiotic · B) Semi-synthetic antibiotic · C) Synthetic antimicrobial agent · D) β-lactam antibiotic Answer: C --- 29. Which of the following is NOT a synthetic antimicrobial agent? · A) Trimethoprim · B) Quinolones · C) Tetracycline · D) Sulfonamides Answer: C --- 30. The importance of antibiotics in medicine includes: · A) Curing viral infections · B) Making modern surgery and chemotherapy possible · C) Replacing all vaccines · D) Eliminating the need for hygiene Answer: B --- 31. What has happened due to the misuse of antibiotics? · A) Improved bacterial growth · B) Decreased need for new drugs · C) Development of antimicrobial resistance · D) Increased susceptibility of viruses Answer: C --- 32. Antibiotics are selectively toxic mainly to: · A) Viruses · B) Fungi · C) Bacteria · D) Parasites Answer: C --- 33. The modern antimicrobial therapy era began with the understanding of all EXCEPT: · A) Selective toxicity · B) Identification of microbial targets · C) The use of herbal remedies · D) Drug resistance Answer: C --- 34. Mass production of penicillin occurred during World War II, proving it was: · A) Highly toxic to humans · B) Highly effective and remarkably non-toxic · C) Only effective against fungi · D) A synthetic drug Answer: B --- 35. Second and third-generation cephalosporins are examples of: · A) Natural antibiotics · B) Semi-synthetic antibiotics · C) Synthetic antimicrobial agents · D) Antiviral drugs Answer: B --- 36. Which of the following best describes the action of antibiotics? · A) They damage all cells indiscriminately · B) They target only viruses · C) They kill or inhibit microorganisms while causing minimal host damage · D) They only work on parasites Answer: C --- 37. The shift in antibiotic development toward synthetic and semi-synthetic drugs is mainly due to: · A) Low cost of synthetic drugs · B) Ease of production · C) Resistance to natural antibiotics · D) Lack of natural sources Answer: C --- 38. Which antibiotic class did penicillin belong to? · A) Aminoglycosides · B) Macrolides · C) β-lactams · D) Tetracyclines Answer: C --- 39. All of the following are natural (microbial) source antibiotics EXCEPT: · A) Streptomycin · B) Erythromycin · C) Ampicillin · D) Tetracycline Answer: C --- 40. According to the lecture, what is essential to prevent antimicrobial resistance? · A) Using higher doses of antibiotics · B) Careful use of antibiotics · C) Avoiding all antibiotics · D) Using only natural antibiotics Answer: B

1. What is the primary definition of antibiotics? · A) Agents that act against viruses only · B) Antimicrobial agents that treat infectious diseases by killing or inhibiting bacteria with minimal host damage · C) Synthetic drugs used only for fungal infections · D) Pain-relieving medications derived from plants Answer: B --- 2. Antibiotics are primarily produced by which microorganisms? · A) Viruses and prions · B) Bacteria or fungi · C) Parasites only · D) Algae and protozoa Answer: B --- 3. The principle of selective toxicity means that the drug targets: · A) Structures present in human cells but absent in bacteria · B) Structures or metabolic processes present in bacteria but absent or different in human cells · C) All microbial cells equally · D) Only viral particles Answer: B --- 4. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an ideal antibiotic? · A) High selective toxicity · B) Effective at low concentration · C) High tendency to induce resistance · D) Minimal side effects Answer: C --- 5. Antimicrobial agents act against which of the following? · A) Only bacteria · B) Only viruses · C) Bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites · D) Only fungi Answer: C --- 6. Chemotherapeutic agents include: · A) Only natural antibiotics · B) Only antiviral drugs · C) Synthetic antimicrobial drugs · D) Only antifungal creams Answer: C --- 7. Before the antibiotic era, which agent was used to treat malaria? · A) Emetine · B) Penicillin · C) Quinine · D) Sulfonamide Answer: C --- 8. Emetine was historically used to treat: · A) Syphilis · B) Amoebiasis · C) Tuberculosis · D) Malaria Answer: B --- 9. The scientific era of antimicrobial therapy began in: · A) Late 18th century · B) Early 20th century · C) Mid 19th century · D) Late 20th century Answer: B --- 10. Which of the following was the first planned chemotherapeutic agent? · A) Penicillin · B) Sulfonamide · C) Arsphenamine · D) Streptomycin Answer: C --- 11. Arsphenamine was used to treat: · A) Malaria · B) Amoebiasis · C) Syphilis · D) Tuberculosis Answer: C --- 12. Sulfonamides, introduced in 1935, are considered: · A) Natural antibiotics · B) Synthetic drugs, not antibiotics by strict definition · C) Antifungal agents · D) Antiviral drugs Answer: B --- 13. Who discovered penicillin in 1929? · A) Paul Ehrlich · B) Gerhard Domagk · C) Alexander Fleming · D) Selman Waksman Answer: C --- 14. Penicillin became available for mass production during: · A) World War I · B) World War II · C) The Korean War · D) The Vietnam War Answer: B --- 15. Penicillin is the prototype of which antibiotic class? · A) Macrolides · B) Aminoglycosides · C) β-lactam antibiotics · D) Tetracyclines Answer: C --- 16. Which antibiotic was discovered during the 1940-1965 period? · A) Amoxicillin · B) Cephalosporin · C) Streptomycin · D) Metronidazole Answer: C --- 17. The "antimicrobial era" refers to the period starting in: · A) 1929 · B) 1909 · C) Early 1940s · D) 1935 Answer: C --- 18. Most true antibiotics obtained from natural sources come from: · A) Viruses · B) Actinomycetes, especially Streptomyces species · C) Human cells · D) Synthetic chemicals Answer: B --- 19. Which fungal source produces penicillin? · A) Cephalosporium species · B) Aspergillus species · C) Penicillium species · D) Candida species Answer: C --- 20. Cephalosporins are originally derived from: · A) Penicillium species · B) Cephalosporium species · C) Streptomyces species · D) Bacillus species Answer: B --- 21. Semi-synthetic antibiotics are: · A) Completely produced by chemical synthesis · B) Derived from natural antibiotics and chemically modified · C) Produced only by fungi · D) Not used in modern medicine Answer: B --- 22. Which of the following is an example of a semi-synthetic antibiotic? · A) Penicillin G · B) Sulfonamide · C) Amoxicillin · D) Streptomycin Answer: C --- 23. Semi-synthetic modification of antibiotics can result in: · A) Decreased antibacterial spectrum · B) Improved resistance to β-lactamases

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D) QBC only Answer: C (Inferred from integration discussion; thick smear for species and RDT for rapid field screening)

D) It kills parasites Answer: B (Thick smear is air-dried without fixation for some stains; fixation may be used for Giemsa but traditionally it is not fixed to allow RBC lysis) --- 52. Both thick and thin smears are examined under: A) 10x objective B) 40x objective C) 100x oil immersion D) 4x objective Answer: C --- 53. Which blood parasite requires thick and thin smears for diagnosis? A) Plasmodium species B) Giardia lamblia C) Entamoeba histolytica D) Ascaris lumbricoides Answer: A --- 54. The feathered edge in a thin smear refers to: A) The thick part of the smear B) The thin, single-layer area ideal for morphology C) The area with multiple RBC layers D) The stain precipitate Answer: B --- 55. Thick smear is more sensitive than thin smear for detecting: A) Parasite species B) Low parasitemia C) RBC morphology D) Platelet count Answer: B --- 56. In thick smear, red blood cells are: A) Preserved intact B) Lysed during staining to concentrate parasites C) Removed before staining D) Fixed permanently Answer: B --- 57. Which angle is used to spread a thin smear? A) 10-15° B) 30-45° C) 60-75° D) 90° Answer: B --- 58. Thick smear is examined to: A) Count parasites per high-power field B) Identify species by chromatin pattern C) Detect babesiosis only D) Perform PCR Answer: A --- 59. A disadvantage of thick smear is: A) Low sensitivity B) Species identification is difficult due to distorted morphology C) Requires more blood D) Takes 2 hours to stain Answer: B --- 60. Which parasite is NOT routinely diagnosed by thick/thin blood smear? A) Plasmodium falciparum B) Trypanosoma C) Microfilariae D) Entamoeba histolytica Answer: D --- Lecture 15: QBC, RDTs, and Non-Microscopic Methods 61. QBC stands for: A) Quick Blood Count B) Quantitative Buffy Coat C) Quality Blood Check D) Quantitative Blood Culture Answer: B --- 62. The QBC test uses a capillary tube containing: A) Formalin B) Fluorescent dye C) Giemsa stain D) Alcohol Answer: B --- 63. In QBC, where do parasites concentrate after centrifugation? A) Plasma layer B) Red blood cell layer C) Buffy coat layer D) Bottom of tube Answer: C --- 64. QBC detects parasites under: A) Light microscope B) UV microscopy C) Electron microscope D) Naked eye Answer: B --- 65. A major advantage of QBC is: A) Identifies species perfectly B) Detects low parasitemia and is rapid C) Inexpensive D) No equipment needed Answer: B --- 66. Which method is most suitable for field use with minimal training? A) Thick smear B) Thin smear C) RDTs D) QBC Answer: C --- 67. According to the comparison table, which method has excellent specificity but limited species information? A) Thick smear B) ELISA/PCR C) RDT D) QBC Answer: C --- 68. Which method has high sensitivity and specificity but requires a laboratory? A) RDT B) Thick smear C) ELISA/PCR D) QBC Answer: C --- 69. A limitation of QBC is: A) Cannot detect low parasitemia B) Difficult to identify parasite species C) Takes many hours D) Requires large blood volume Answer: B --- 70. RDTs for malaria detect: A) Parasite DNA B) Parasite antigens (e.g., HRP2, pLDH) C) Host antibodies D) Parasite motility Answer: B (Inferred from general knowledge; the lecture mentions RDTs for leishmania and protozoa but principle applies) --- 71. Which method provides a permanent morphological record? A) QBC B) RDT C) Thin blood smear D) Rapid test strip Answer: C --- 72. The integration of diagnostic methods is important because: A) No single method detects all parasites B) All methods are equally sensitive C) Microscopy is obsolete D) RDTs are always better Answer: A --- 73. Which method is NOT non-microscopic? A) ELISA B) PCR C) Thick blood smear D) RDT Answer: C --- 74. A disadvantage of RDTs compared to microscopy is: A) Faster results B) Limited species information C) Requires skilled personnel D) Cannot be used in the field Answer: B --- 75. According to the lecture, which combination is best for malaria diagnosis in resource-limited settings? A) PCR only B) ELISA only C) Thick smear + RDT

A) 4-6 μm B) 8-10 μm C) 20-30 μm D) 50-60 μm Answer: C --- 27. In MZN staining, fixing the smear is done with: A) Formalin B) Methanol for 5 minutes C) Alcohol for 1 hour D) Heat only Answer: B --- 28. A disadvantage of MZN stain is: A) It cannot detect Cryptosporidium B) Requires careful decolorization to avoid over- or under-staining C) Too expensive D) Cannot be used for stool Answer: B --- 29. Which microscope objective is used to examine MZN-stained slides? A) 10x B) 40x C) 100x oil immersion D) 4x Answer: C --- 30. The primary stain in MZN is: A) Methylene blue B) Carbol fuchsin C) Malachite green D) Eosin Answer: B --- Lecture 13: Direct and Indirect Diagnosis of Toxoplasma gondii 31. Toxoplasma gondii is an: A) Extracellular helminth B) Obligate intracellular protozoan C) Free-living amoeba D) Bacterium Answer: B --- 32. Congenital toxoplasmosis is a major concern in: A) Elderly men B) Pregnant women C) Children under 1 year D) All adults equally Answer: B --- 33. Which body fluid can be used for PCR diagnosis of T. gondii? A) Stool B) Amniotic fluid, CSF, or blood C) Urine D) Saliva Answer: B --- 34. In serological diagnosis of T. gondii, presence of IgM positive and IgG negative indicates: A) Past infection B) Recent infection C) No infection D) Chronic infection Answer: B --- 35. IgG positive and IgM negative indicates: A) Recent infection B) Past infection with immunity C) Active acute infection D) False positive Answer: B --- 36. Which serological test is considered the gold standard for toxoplasmosis? A) ELISA B) Indirect fluorescent antibody (IFA) C) Sabin-Feldman dye test D) Rapid RDT Answer: C --- 37. A limitation of the Sabin-Feldman dye test is: A) Low sensitivity B) Requires live tachyzoites C) Cannot detect IgM D) Too rapid Answer: B --- 38. PCR for T. gondii is highly useful in: A) Immunocompetent patients only B) Prenatal diagnosis and immunocompromised patients C) Routine stool examination D) Veterinary use only Answer: B --- 39. Which antibodies are detected by ELISA for toxoplasmosis? A) IgA and IgD B) IgG and IgM C) IgE only D) IgG only Answer: B --- 40. Both IgM and IgG positive in toxoplasmosis serology indicates: A) Past infection only B) Recent infection or persistent IgM C) No infection D) Laboratory error Answer: B --- 41. Direct diagnosis of T. gondii can be achieved by: A) Stool examination B) Microscopy of tissue biopsies or body fluids C) Skin test D) Urine antigen test Answer: B --- 42. In tissue sections, T. gondii can be detected by: A) Gram stain B) H&E or Giemsa stain C) India ink D) Lactophenol cotton blue Answer: B --- 43. Both negative for IgG and IgM indicates: A) Acute infection B) No prior exposure C) Chronic infection D) Past infection Answer: B --- 44. ELISA for toxoplasmosis is: A) Qualitative only B) Quantitative and widely available C) Not useful for screening D) Only for antigens Answer: B --- 45. Which method is highly sensitive and specific for detecting T. gondii DNA? A) ELISA B) IFA C) PCR D) Sabin-Feldman Answer: C --- Lecture 14: Thick and Thin Blood Smears 46. Thick blood smear is primarily used to: A) Identify parasite species B) Detect low parasite density C) Preserve morphology D) Count white blood cells Answer: B --- 47. Thin blood smear is primarily used to: A) Detect low parasitemia B) Determine parasite species and estimate parasitemia C) Concentrate parasites D) Screen large populations Answer: B --- 48. Which stain is commonly used for both thick and thin blood smears? A) Gram stain B) Giemsa stain C) Ziehl-Neelsen D) Trichrome Answer: B --- 49. In thick smear preparation, blood is spread into a circle of approximately: A) 0.5 cm diameter B) 1 cm diameter C) 2 cm diameter D) 5 cm diameter Answer: B --- 50. Thin smear is fixed with: A) Water B) Methanol C) Formalin D) Acetone Answer: B --- 51. Thick smear is usually NOT fixed with methanol because: A) It is too expensive B) Fixation would lyse red blood cells (needed for concentration) C) It increases background

Lecture 11: Detection of Antigens in Stool (RDTs) & Immunological Diagnosis for Enteric Protozoa and Visceral Leishmaniasis 1. Rapid Diagnostic Tests (RDTs) are based on: A) Parasite culture B) Antibody-antigen reactions C) DNA amplification D) Parasite motility Answer: B --- 2. In an RDT, a positive result is indicated by: A) Single control line B) Control line + test line C) No lines D) Color change in the buffer Answer: B --- 3. Which RDT is mentioned for visceral leishmaniasis? A) Detecting Leishmania donovani in stool B) rK39 antigen test C) Antibody test for Leishmania D) PCR for Leishmania Answer: B --- 4. RDTs for Giardia lamblia and Entamoeba histolytica detect: A) Antibodies in blood B) Antigens in stool C) Parasite DNA D) Parasite motility Answer: B --- 5. What is a major advantage of RDTs? A) Quantitative results B) Rapid results (10-20 minutes) C) High cost D) Requires skilled microscopist Answer: B --- 6. A single control line on an RDT indicates: A) Positive result B) Negative result C) Invalid test D) Equivocal result Answer: B --- 7. Which of the following is a disadvantage of RDTs? A) Too slow B) False positives possible due to cross-reactivity C) Requires electricity D) Cannot be used in the field Answer: B --- 8. RDTs are particularly useful in: A) Reference laboratories only B) Field or remote areas C) Detecting chronic infections only D) Quantitative parasite load assessment Answer: B --- 9. The rK39 RDT is critical for diagnosing visceral leishmaniasis in: A) Developed countries only B) Resource-limited regions C) Asymptomatic patients only D) Veterinary use only Answer: B --- 10. What does RDT stand for? A) Rapid Direct Test B) Rapid Diagnostic Test C) Real-time DNA Test D) Routine Diagnostic Technique Answer: B --- 11. RDTs reduce dependence on: A) Patients B) Skilled microscopists C) Buffers D) Antigens Answer: B --- 12. If both control line and test line appear on an RDT, the result is: A) Negative B) Positive C) Invalid D) Needs repetition Answer: B --- 13. Which sample is NOT typically used for RDTs mentioned? A) Stool B) Blood C) Urine D) Both A and B are used Answer: C (Urine not mentioned for these RDTs) --- 14. RDTs are: A) Quantitative only B) Qualitative (not quantitative) C) More sensitive than PCR D) Slower than microscopy Answer: B --- 15. A major advantage of RDTs for enteric protozoa is: A) Can differentiate all species B) Useful for early and rapid diagnosis C) Provides parasite count D) Requires frozen samples Answer: B --- Lecture 12: Laboratory Diagnosis of Intestinal Coccidia – Modified Ziehl-Neelsen (MZN) Stain 16. Which parasite is NOT an intestinal coccidian? A) Cryptosporidium parvum B) Cyclospora cayetanensis C) Entamoeba histolytica D) Cystoisospora belli Answer: C --- 17. Modified Ziehl-Neelsen (MZN) stain is used to detect: A) Helminth eggs B) Intestinal coccidia oocysts C) Blood parasites D) Tapeworm proglottids Answer: B --- 18. In MZN stain, coccidian oocysts appear: A) Blue B) Bright red C) Green D) Colorless Answer: B --- 19. The background stool material in MZN stain appears: A) Red B) Blue (counterstained with methylene blue) C) Yellow D) Black Answer: B --- 20. What is the size of Cryptosporidium parvum oocysts? A) 4-6 μm B) 8-10 μm C) 20-30 μm D) 50-60 μm Answer: A --- 21. MZN stain is a type of: A) Gram stain B) Acid-fast staining method C) Giemsa stain D) Trichrome stain Answer: B --- 22. In MZN staining, decolorization is done with: A) Water B) Acid-alcohol (1% HCl in ethanol) C) Methanol D) Acetone Answer: B --- 23. Which counterstain is used in MZN? A) Carbol fuchsin B) Methylene blue C) Eosin D) Iodine Answer: B --- 24. MZN stain is especially important for diagnosing coccidia in: A) Immunocompetent patients B) Immunocompromised patients (e.g., HIV/AIDS) C) Children only D) Elderly only Answer: B --- 25. What is the approximate size of Cyclospora oocysts? A) 4-6 μm B) 8-10 μm C) 20-30 μm D) 1-2 μm Answer: B --- 26. What is the approximate size of Cystoisospora oocysts?

A) Antigen B) Substrate for the enzyme C) Alcohol D) Iodine Answer: B --- 72. ELISA is particularly useful for extra-intestinal parasites because: A) They are easy to culture B) Direct detection may be difficult C) They are all bacteria D) No immune response occurs Answer: B --- 73. Cross-reactivity in ELISA may occur with: A) Related parasites B) Different antigens C) Distilled water D) Glass slides Answer: A --- 74. The optical density in ELISA is measured using a: A) Microscope B) Spectrophotometer C) Centrifuge D) pH meter Answer: B --- 75. Which statement about ELISA is FALSE? A) High sensitivity and specificity B) Expensive and requires laboratory equipment C) Not suitable for large-scale screening D) Applicable to extra-intestinal parasites Answer: C

C) No parasitic infections D) Only viral infections Answer: B --- 48. In Kato-Katz, glycerol is used to: A) Stain the eggs B) Clear fecal material from around the eggs C) Kill the parasites D) Concentrate the sample Answer: B --- 49. If hookworm is present in the area, Kato-Katz slides should be read within: A) 1-2 hours B) 30-60 minutes C) 24 hours D) 1 week Answer: B --- 50. Why should hookworm slides be read quickly? A) The eggs hatch and disappear B) The stain fades C) The glycerol evaporates D) The eggs become over-stained Answer: A --- 51. Kato-Katz is NOT suitable for: A) Formed stool B) Liquid stool (diarrheal samples) C) Stool with helminth eggs D) Field studies Answer: B --- 52. In Kato-Katz, the number of eggs is multiplied by a factor to give: A) Eggs per milliliter B) Eggs per gram (epg) of feces C) Total worm count D) Parasite index Answer: B --- 53. Which parasite’s eggs disappear if Kato-Katz slide is read after 60 minutes? A) Ascaris lumbricoides B) Trichuris trichiura C) Hookworm D) Schistosoma mansoni Answer: C --- 54. The cellophane in Kato-Katz is soaked in: A) Water B) Glycerol-malachite green or glycerol-methylene blue C) Formalin D) Iodine Answer: B --- 55. Kato-Katz allows both identification and quantification of eggs, so it is easy to calculate: A) Patient’s age B) Worm burden C) Blood count D) Liver function Answer: B --- 56. A major disadvantage of Kato-Katz is: A) It requires expensive equipment B) Not suitable for liquid stool C) Cannot detect Ascaris D) Too sensitive Answer: B --- 57. What is removed by pressing stool through a mesh screen in Kato-Katz? A) Parasite eggs B) Large particles/debris C) Glycerol D) Bacteria Answer: B --- 58. Which parasite is specifically mentioned as being detected well by Kato-Katz? A) Giardia lamblia B) Entamoeba histolytica C) Schistosoma mansoni D) Cryptosporidium Answer: C --- 59. The template in Kato-Katz has a hole that is filled with: A) Water B) Sieved feces C) Glycerol D) Stain Answer: B --- 60. Kato-Katz is good for field studies because: A) It requires electricity B) Preparation can be done in the field and examined later in a lab C) It detects all parasites D) It is a molecular method Answer: B --- Lecture 10: Immunological Methods – ELISA 61. ELISA in parasitology can detect: A) Only antibodies B) Only antigens C) Either antibodies or antigens D) Parasite motility Answer: C --- 62. In indirect ELISA for antibody detection, what is coated on the microplate wells? A) Patient antibodies B) Parasite antigen C) Enzyme D) Secondary antibody Answer: B --- 63. The color intensity in ELISA is proportional to: A) Parasite size B) Antibody or antigen concentration C) Patient’s age D) Time of day Answer: B --- 64. Which type of ELISA detects parasite antigens in serum or stool? A) Indirect ELISA B) Capture (Sandwich) ELISA C) Competitive ELISA D) None of the above Answer: B --- 65. Indirect ELISA is commonly used to detect antibodies against which parasite? A) Entamoeba histolytica B) Ascaris lumbricoides C) Hookworm D) Taenia saginata Answer: A --- 66. A positive result in indirect ELISA means: A) Active infection always B) Color change above cut-off value C) No antibodies present D) Parasite is dead Answer: B --- 67. Which is an advantage of immunological methods? A) Low sensitivity B) Useful for infections with low parasite load C) Cannot be used for large-scale screening D) Always detects current infection only Answer: B --- 68. A disadvantage of antibody detection by ELISA is: A) It is too rapid B) Antibody levels may persist after treatment C) It detects parasite DNA D) It requires fresh stool Answer: B --- 69. Competitive ELISA is useful for: A) Detecting motility B) Differentiating closely related parasites C) Concentration of samples D) Preserving specimens Answer: B --- 70. In indirect ELISA, the secondary antibody is linked to: A) Parasite antigen B) An enzyme C) A flotation solution D) A preservative Answer: B --- 71. What is added to produce a color change in ELISA?