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اللجنة العلمية للدفعة السادسة طب الأسنان - جامعة تعز

اللجنة العلمية للدفعة السادسة طب الأسنان - جامعة تعز

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نرحب بكم في اللجنة العلمية لدفعة السادسة طب جراحة الفم والاسنان هنا تجدون كل ما تحتاجون في تخصص طب وجراحه الفم والاسنان الفهرس الخاص بالقناه https://t.me/rrryel بوت التواصل مع اللجنة @Khalifa577_bot رئيس اللجنه العلمية/خليفه البريهي

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- Midterm exam :🛑🛑مجاووب 🛑🛑 orthodontics² - جامعة الجند -د/عقلان الكامل لـ #وجيه_عبده_قاسم #محمد_سعيد • قناة اللّجنة العل
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- Midterm exam :🛑🛑مجاووب 🛑🛑 orthodontics² - جامعة الجند -د/عقلان الكامل لـ #وجيه_عبده_قاسم #محمد_سعيد • قناة اللّجنة العلمية⁶.| • قناة الفهرس. • بوت التّواصل الخاص باللّجنة↫.         . @Khalifa577_bot

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- اختبار جامعة الرواد (تقويم اسنان٢) 🛑🛑مجاووب 🛑🛑 -د/عقلان الكامل لـ #وجيه_عبده_قاسم #محمد_سعيد - طبعا ذا الاختبار من محاض+3
- اختبار جامعة الرواد (تقويم اسنان٢) 🛑🛑مجاووب 🛑🛑 -د/عقلان الكامل لـ #وجيه_عبده_قاسم #محمد_سعيد - طبعا ذا الاختبار من محاضرة الExamination ,إلى عند Landmarks حق السيفالو فقط . *- اما بالنسبه للسوال المقالي كان عباره عن مسألة عن Bolton’s analysis . • قناة اللّجنة العلمية⁶.| • قناة الفهرس. • بوت التّواصل الخاص باللّجنة↫.         . @Khalifa577_bot
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تفريغ محاضرات Orthodontics #Orthodontics² •د.عقلان الكامل •لـ #توهيب_الفقيه • قناة اللّجنة العلمية⁶.| • قناة الفهرس. • بوت التّواصل الخاص باللّجنة↫.         . @Khalifa577_bot
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· A) Class I malocclusion · B) Class II malocclusion · C) Class III malocclusion · D) Normal relationship Answer: B) Class II malocclusion --- 31. The normal interincisal angle is: · A) 90 degrees · B) 112 degrees · C) 130 degrees · D) 150 degrees Answer: C) 130 degrees --- 32. An interincisal angle below 130 degrees indicates: · A) Retroclined incisors · B) Proclined incisors · C) Normal incisor position · D) Edge-to-edge bite Answer: B) Proclined incisors --- 33. The normal mandibular plane angle (SN to mandibular plane) mean is: · A) 14 degrees · B) 32 degrees · C) 59.4 degrees · D) 90 degrees Answer: B) 32 degrees --- 34. The mean Y (growth) axis angle (Frankfort plane to S-Gn) is: · A) 32 degrees · B) 59.4 degrees · C) 82 degrees · D) 112 degrees Answer: B) 59.4 degrees --- 35. An SNA angle greater than 84° is classified as: · A) Orthognathic · B) Prognathic · C) Retrognathic · D) Normal Answer: B) Prognathic --- 36. An SNB angle less than 78° is classified as: · A) Orthognathic · B) Prognathic · C) Retrognathic · D) Normal Answer: C) Retrognathic --- 37. The normal range for Y (growth) axis is: · A) 30-40 degrees · B) 40-50 degrees · C) 53-66 degrees · D) 70-80 degrees Answer: C) 53-66 degrees --- 38. The maxillary plane is defined as a line joining: · A) Sella and nasion · B) Porion and orbitale · C) Anterior and posterior nasal spines · D) Gonion and menton Answer: C) Anterior and posterior nasal spines --- 39. The mandibular plane is defined as a line joining: · A) Sella and nasion · B) Porion and orbitale · C) Gonion and menton · D) Anterior and posterior nasal spines Answer: C) Gonion and menton --- 40. The normal upper central incisor inclination to Frankfort plane is: · A) 90 degrees · B) 112 degrees · C) 130 degrees · D) 150 degrees Answer: B) 112 degrees ---
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· A) The most prominent point of the nose · B) The most anterior prominent point in the midsagittal plane of the forehead · C) The point of greatest concavity between the forehead and the nose · D) The lowest point on the soft tissue chin Answer: B) The most anterior prominent point in the midsagittal plane of the forehead --- 18. Pronasale (Pn) is defined as: · A) The point of greatest concavity in the midline between forehead and nose · B) The point where columella merges with upper lip · C) The most prominent or anterior point of the nose (tip of the nose) · D) The lowermost point on the vermilion of the upper lip Answer: C) The most prominent or anterior point of the nose (tip of the nose) --- 19. Subnasale (Sn) is defined as: · A) The point of greatest concavity in the midline of the upper lip · B) The point where the columella merges with the upper lip in the midsagittal plane · C) The most prominent point of the chin · D) The lowest point on the soft tissue chin Answer: B) The point where the columella merges with the upper lip in the midsagittal plane --- 20. Soft tissue pogonion (Pog') is defined as: · A) The lowest point on the contour of the soft tissue chin · B) The most prominent or anterior point on the chin in the midsagittal plane · C) The point of greatest concavity in the midline of the lower lip · D) The median point on the lower margin of the lower lip Answer: B) The most prominent or anterior point on the chin in the midsagittal plane --- Hard Tissue Landmarks 21. Point A (Subspinale) is defined as: · A) The most anterior point on the frontonasal suture · B) The deepest concavity on anterior profile of maxilla · C) The most anterior point on the chin · D) The deepest concavity on anterior surface of mandibular symphysis Answer: B) The deepest concavity on anterior profile of maxilla --- 22. Point B (Supramentale) is defined as: · A) The deepest concavity on anterior profile of maxilla · B) The most anterior inferior point on the maxillary alveolar process · C) The deepest concavity on anterior surface of mandibular symphysis · D) The most anterior point on the chin Answer: C) The deepest concavity on anterior surface of mandibular symphysis --- 23. Sella (S) is defined as: · A) The most superior point of the external auditory meatus · B) The midpoint of sella turcica (geometric center of the pituitary fossa) · C) The lowest point on the anterior rim of the foramen magnum · D) The most anterior point on the frontonasal suture Answer: B) The midpoint of sella turcica (geometric center of the pituitary fossa) --- 24. Gonion (Go) is defined as: · A) The most superior posterior point on the condylar head · B) The most posterior inferior point on the angle of the mandible · C) A point at the junction of the posterior border of the ramus and occipital bone · D) The lowest point on the symphyseal outline of the chin Answer: B) The most posterior inferior point on the angle of the mandible --- 25. Gnathion (Gn) is located by: · A) Taking the midpoint between nasion and menton · B) Taking the midpoint between pogonion and menton · C) Taking the midpoint between sella and nasion · D) Taking the midpoint between porion and orbitale Answer: B) Taking the midpoint between pogonion and menton --- Cephalometric Planes 26. The SN line joins: · A) Porion and orbitale · B) Sella and nasion · C) Gonion and menton · D) Anterior and posterior nasal spines Answer: B) Sella and nasion --- 27. The Frankfort plane joins: · A) Sella and nasion · B) Porion and orbitale · C) Gonion and menton · D) Anterior and posterior nasal spines Answer: B) Porion and orbitale --- Cephalometric Angles and Analysis 28. The normal SNA angle standard is: · A) 72° (±2) · B) 80° (±2) · C) 82° (±2) · D) 90° (±2) Answer: C) 82° (±2) --- 29. The normal SNB angle standard is: · A) 72° (±2) · B) 80° (±2) · C) 82° (±2) · D) 90° (±2) Answer: B) 80° (±2) --- 30. An ANB angle of more than 4° indicates:
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- CEPHALOMETRIC : Multiple-Choice Questions from Cephalometric Radiograph Lecture --- History and Basic Concepts 1. What does the term "Cephalometry" mean? · A) Measurement of the skull in cadavers · B) Scientific measurement of dimensions of the 'living head' · C) Radiographic imaging of teeth · D) Measurement of facial muscles Answer: B) Scientific measurement of dimensions of the 'living head' --- 2. Who published the first refined cephalometric technique applied to orthodontics in 1931? · A) Pacini alone · B) Hofrath in Germany and Broadbent in the United States · C) Angle and Tweed · D) Ricketts and Steiner Answer: B) Hofrath in Germany and Broadbent in the United States --- 3. The first paper on cephalometrics was published by Pacini in: · A) 1910 · B) 1922 · C) 1931 · D) 1945 Answer: B) 1922 --- Cephalostat and Patient Positioning 4. The head holding device used in cephalometric radiography is called: · A) Cephalostat · B) Orthopantomograph · C) Tomograph · D) Stereostat Answer: A) Cephalostat --- 5. What prevents movement of the head in the horizontal plane in a cephalostat? · A) Forehead clamp · B) Orbital pointer · C) Two ear rods · D) Chin rest Answer: C) Two ear rods --- 6. Vertical stabilization of the head in cephalostat is achieved by: · A) Ear rods · B) An orbital pointer contacting the lower border of the left orbit · C) Bite block · D) Nose clamp Answer: B) An orbital pointer contacting the lower border of the left orbit --- 7. The distance between the X-ray source and the mid-sagittal plane of the patient in cephalometry is fixed at: · A) 3 feet (91.4 cm) · B) 4 feet (121.9 cm) · C) 5 feet (152.4 cm) · D) 6 feet (182.9 cm) Answer: C) 5 feet (152.4 cm) --- 8. The recommended kilovoltage (kVp) for cephalometric radiographs is: · A) 50-55 · B) 60-65 · C) 70-75 · D) 80-85 Answer: C) 70-75 --- Types of Cephalometric Radiographs 9. Which type of cephalometric radiograph is commonly used for cephalometric analysis? · A) Posteroanterior (PA) cephalograph · B) Lateral cephalometric radiograph · C) Submentovertex view · D) Waters view Answer: B) Lateral cephalometric radiograph --- 10. Posteroanterior (PA) cephalographs are used in: · A) Routine growth studies · B) Presurgical and asymmetric growth evaluations · C) Soft tissue profile analysis · D) Pharynx evaluation Answer: B) Presurgical and asymmetric growth evaluations --- Cephalometric Landmarks Overview 11. Cephalometric landmarks are divided into: · A) Primary and secondary landmarks · B) Hard tissue landmarks and soft tissue landmarks · C) Anterior and posterior landmarks · D) Cranial and facial landmarks Answer: B) Hard tissue landmarks and soft tissue landmarks --- 12. Before tracing a cephalometric head film, the clinician should be familiar with: · A) Only the soft tissues of the face · B) Only the dentition · C) The gross anatomy of the head, especially bony components · D) Only the cranial base Answer: C) The gross anatomy of the head, especially bony components --- Craniofacial Bones 13. The sphenoid bone is best described as: · A) Unpaired bowl-shaped bone in the forehead · B) Single, butterfly-shaped bone at the base of the skull · C) Paired bone on each side of the skull · D) Smallest and thinnest bone of the skull Answer: B) Single, butterfly-shaped bone at the base of the skull --- 14. Which bone is the smallest and thinnest bone of the skull? · A) Nasal bone · B) Lacrimal bone · C) Vomer bone · D) Palatine bone Answer: B) Lacrimal bone --- 15. The mandible has how many parts? · A) One part · B) Two parts · C) Three parts · D) Four parts Answer: C) Three parts (body of mandible and two rami) --- 16. The orbital surface of the maxilla features the: · A) Mental foramen · B) Infra-orbital groove leading into the infra-orbital canal · C) Mandibular notch · D) Pterygoid fovea Answer: B) Infra-orbital groove leading into the infra-orbital canal --- Soft Tissue Landmarks 17. Glabella (G) is defined as:
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18. Which structure is NOT typically visible on a panoramic radiograph? · A) Mandibular condyle · B) Maxillary sinus · C) Dental pulp chamber details · D) Mental foramen Answer: C) Dental pulp chamber details --- 19. The sigmoid notch is located between: · A) The condyle and coronoid process · B) The maxilla and mandible · C) The teeth and alveolus · D) The sinus and nasal cavity Answer: A) The condyle and coronoid process --- 20. The styloid process is visible on OPG and is located near the: · A) Maxillary sinus · B) External auditory meatus · C) Mental foramen · D) Anterior nasal spine Answer: B) External auditory meatus --- 21. The mandibular canal and mental foramen are structures evaluated in: · A) Step 1 of OPG interpretation · B) Step 2 of OPG interpretation · C) Step 3 of OPG interpretation · D) Step 4 of OPG interpretation Answer: B) Step 2 of OPG interpretation --- OPG Interpretation Steps 22. The first step in reading an OPG is to: · A) Examine the maxillary sinuses · B) Examine the mandibular bony outline from condyle to condyle · C) Evaluate the teeth · D) Check soft tissue Answer: B) Examine the mandibular bony outline from condyle to condyle --- 23. When interpreting OPG, it is advisable to: · A) Only examine the right side · B) Compare the right and left sides · C) Only examine the left side · D) Ignore symmetry assessment Answer: B) Compare the right and left sides --- 24. The final step in OPG interpretation involves: · A) Examining the mandibular cortex · B) Evaluating the teeth · C) Checking any apparent soft tissue · D) Examining the maxillary sinuses Answer: C) Checking any apparent soft tissue --- 25. Findings from OPG regarding caries, fractures, or pathology should be: · A) Considered definitive diagnosis · B) Clinically correlated and/or with IOPAs or bitewing radiographs · C) Ignored if not visible · D) Only used for surgical planning Answer: B) Clinically correlated and/or with IOPAs or bitewing radiographs
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- ORTHOPANTOMOGRAM : Multiple-Choice Questions from Orthopantomogram (OPG) Lecture --- Definition and Basic Concepts 1. What does "Orthopantomogram (OPG)" literally mean? · A) Orthodontic + Panoramic + Graph · B) Ortho (straight/correct) + Panto (all/entire) + Gram (image/record) · C) Oral + Panoramic + Radiograph · D) Orthogonal + Panto + Gram Answer: B) Ortho (straight/correct) + Panto (all/entire) + Gram (image/record) --- 2. Panoramic radiography was first described by: · A) Roentgen · B) Paatero and Numata · C) Ricketts · D) Angle Answer: B) Paatero and Numata --- 3. In panoramic radiography, the X-ray tube head and image receptor rotate in: · A) The same direction · B) Opposite directions · C) Random directions · D) A stationary position Answer: B) Opposite directions --- Head Positioning 4. For an accurate panoramic image, the Mid-Sagittal Plane must be: · A) Parallel to the floor · B) Perpendicular to the floor (vertical) · C) At a 45-degree angle · D) Tilted upward Answer: B) Perpendicular to the floor (vertical) --- 5. The Frankfort Horizontal Plane must be: · A) Perpendicular to the floor · B) Parallel to the floor · C) At a 30-degree angle · D) Aligned with the occlusal plane Answer: B) Parallel to the floor --- 6. Misalignment of head positioning planes can result in: · A) Clearer images · B) Distorted panoramic images and inaccurate diagnosis · C) Lower radiation dose · D) Faster image acquisition Answer: B) Distorted panoramic images and inaccurate diagnosis --- Advantages of OPG 7. Which is NOT an advantage of panoramic radiography? · A) Broad anatomical coverage · B) Low radiation dose · C) High resolution for detecting small caries · D) High patient comfort Answer: C) High resolution for detecting small caries --- 8. Panoramic radiography is ideal for patients with: · A) Dental implants · B) Gag reflex or trismus · C) Orthodontic brackets · D) Dental caries Answer: B) Gag reflex or trismus --- 9. The total time required for OPG positioning and exposure is approximately: · A) 1 minute · B) 3-4 minutes · C) 10-15 minutes · D) 30 minutes Answer: B) 3-4 minutes --- Disadvantages of OPG 10. Which is a disadvantage of panoramic radiography? · A) Broad anatomical coverage · B) Variable magnification and distortion · C) Low radiation dose · D) Patient comfort Answer: B) Variable magnification and distortion --- 11. Overlapping of structures is particularly a problem in the region of: · A) Maxillary molars · B) Lower incisors · C) Mandibular molars · D) TMJ region Answer: B) Lower incisors --- 12. Panoramic radiographs are excellent for overview but NOT ideal for: · A) Patient education · B) Overall evaluation of dentition · C) Precise diagnosis or measurements · D) Detecting impacted teeth Answer: C) Precise diagnosis or measurements --- 13. Panoramic radiography cannot detect as accurately as intraoral periapical radiographs: · A) Impacted teeth · B) Small caries and early periapical lesions · C) TMJ abnormalities · D) Sinus pathology Answer: B) Small caries and early periapical lesions --- Clinical Applications 14. Which of the following can be assessed using OPG? · A) Stage of teeth formation · B) Delayed tooth eruption · C) Impaction and supernumerary teeth · D) All of the above Answer: D) All of the above --- 15. OPG is useful for all of the following EXCEPT: · A) Assessment of dental age · B) Detection of small proximal caries · C) Evaluation of mandibular morphology · D) Investigation of suspected fractures Answer: B) Detection of small proximal caries --- 16. Reduced maxillary sinus size is related to: · A) Mouth breathing and collapse of maxillary segments · B) Nasal breathing · C) Normal growth · D) Excessive mastication Answer: A) Mouth breathing and collapse of maxillary segments --- 17. OPG provides a sharp and accurate profile view of: · A) The nasal cavity · B) The condyle and articular eminence · C) The maxillary sinus floor · D) The hard palate Answer: B) The condyle and articular eminence --- Anatomical Landmarks
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· A) Mesiobuccal cusp of upper first molar in the buccal groove of lower first molar · B) Mesiobuccal cusp of upper first molar anterior to the buccal groove · C) Mesiobuccal cusp of upper first molar posterior to the buccal groove · D) Normal relationship Answer: B) Mesiobuccal cusp of upper first molar anterior to the buccal groove --- 58. Angle Class III malocclusion is characterized by: · A) Normal molar relationship · B) Mesiobuccal cusp of upper first molar anterior to the buccal groove · C) Mesiobuccal cusp of upper first molar posterior to the buccal groove · D) Complete crossbite Answer: C) Mesiobuccal cusp of upper first molar posterior to the buccal groove --- 59. Anterior deep bite is classified as a problem in: · A) Transverse plane of space · B) Vertical plane of space · C) Anteroposterior plane of space · D) All planes Answer: B) Vertical plane of space --- 60. Maxillary buccal posterior crossbite is classified as a problem in: · A) Anteroposterior plane · B) Vertical plane · C) Transverse plane · D) None of the above Answer: C) Transverse plane
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Answer: C) Short anterior facial height and deep bite malocclusion --- Functional Examination - Respiration 38. In mouth breathers, the lips at rest are: · A) In contact · B) Separated · C) Incompetent · D) Both B and C Answer: D) Both B and C --- 39. The mirror test for respiration is positive when: · A) No cloud with moisture appears · B) Cloud with moisture appears · C) Mirror remains clear · D) Mirror cracks Answer: B) Cloud with moisture appears --- Functional Examination - Swallowing 40. Infantile swallowing pattern is replaced by mature swallow: · A) At birth · B) After 6 months · C) As buccal teeth start erupting · D) After permanent teeth eruption Answer: C) As buccal teeth start erupting --- 41. In normal swallowing: · A) Teeth are not in occlusion · B) Active anterior seal is present · C) Teeth are in occlusion with passive anterior seal · D) Mentalis muscle contracts Answer: C) Teeth are in occlusion with passive anterior seal --- 42. Abnormal swallowing may lead to: · A) Improved occlusion · B) Tongue thrusting habit and malocclusion · C) Increased arch width · D) Overeruption of posterior teeth Answer: B) Tongue thrusting habit and malocclusion --- Functional Examination - TMJ 43. Normal maximum interincisal opening range is: · A) 20-25 mm · B) 30-35 mm · C) 40-45 mm · D) 50-55 mm Answer: C) 40-45 mm --- 44. A mouth opening less than ___ mm is considered restricted. · A) 30 mm · B) 35 mm · C) 40 mm · D) 45 mm Answer: C) 40 mm --- 45. Lateral movement less than ___ mm is considered restricted. · A) 4 mm · B) 6 mm · C) 8 mm · D) 10 mm Answer: C) 8 mm --- 46. Deviation in jaw movement is characterized by: · A) Midline shift that persists with continued opening · B) Midline shift that disappears with continued opening · C) Pain on opening · D) Clicking sound Answer: B) Midline shift that disappears with continued opening --- 47. Deflection in jaw movement is characterized by: · A) Midline shift that disappears with continued opening · B) Midline shift that becomes greater with opening · C) No midline shift · D) Inability to open mouth Answer: B) Midline shift that becomes greater with opening Intra-oral Examination 48. A palatally impacted canine presents as: · A) Symmetric palatal contour · B) Asymmetric palatal contour · C) Normal palatal vault · D) High arched palate Answer: B) Asymmetric palatal contour --- 49. The blanching test is used to diagnose: · A) Dental caries · B) Periodontal disease · C) Abnormal labial frenum · D) Impacted teeth Answer: C) Abnormal labial frenum --- 50. Macroglossia may cause: · A) Crowding of teeth · B) Flaring and spacing of teeth · C) Deep bite · D) Cross bite Answer: B) Flaring and spacing of teeth --- 51. Microglossia is associated with: · A) Spacing of teeth · B) Narrow and collapsed dental arches · C) Proclined incisors · D) Open bite Answer: B) Narrow and collapsed dental arches --- Tooth Examination 52. Which is NOT a category of tooth number abnormality? · A) Missing teeth · B) Supernumerary teeth · C) Malformed teeth · D) Rotated teeth Answer: D) Rotated teeth --- 53. Unilateral extraction may cause: · A) Bilateral symmetry · B) Midline shift · C) Increased arch length · D) Reduced overbite Answer: B) Midline shift --- 54. Tooth transposition is defined as: · A) Rotation of a tooth · B) Migration of a tooth · C) Positional interchange of two teeth · D) Impaction of a tooth Answer: C) Positional interchange of two teeth --- Space Analysis 55. Which is NOT a sign of space loss? · A) Mesial migration of posterior teeth · B) Loss of space for successional teeth · C) Increased arch width · D) Midline shift Answer: C) Increased arch width --- 56. Tipping of crown only indicates: · A) Tooth displacement with root movement · B) Tooth displacement without root movement · C) Complete tooth movement · D) No tooth movement Answer: B) Tooth displacement without root movement --- Malocclusion Classification 57. Angle Class II malocclusion is characterized by:
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· A) Broad dental arches · B) Narrow dental arches · C) Normal dental arches · D) Irregular dental arches Answer: B) Narrow dental arches --- 20. A brachycephalic head shape is: · A) Long and narrow · B) Broad and short · C) Average shape · D) Irregular shape Answer: B) Broad and short --- 21. Normal facial orientation is parallel to the: · A) Frankfort horizontal plane · B) Inter-pupillary line · C) Camper's line · D) Occlusal plane Answer: B) Inter-pupillary line --- Lip Examination 22. Normal upper lip length is: · A) 1/4 of lower facial height · B) 1/3 of lower facial height · C) 1/2 of lower facial height · D) 2/3 of lower facial height Answer: B) 1/3 of lower facial height --- 23. Normal lower lip length is: · A) 1/3 of lower facial height · B) 1/2 of lower facial height · C) 2/3 of lower facial height · D) 3/4 of lower facial height Answer: C) 2/3 of lower facial height --- 24. Incompetent lips are characterized by: · A) Lips in slight contact at rest · B) Lips parted at rest with muscle contraction on swallowing · C) Excessive lip thickness · D) Short lower lip Answer: B) Lips parted at rest with muscle contraction on swallowing --- 25. A high lip line is located at: · A) The incisal one third of the upper incisors · B) The middle or gingival thirds of the upper incisors · C) Below the plane of occlusion · D) The cervical margin of lower incisors Answer: B) The middle or gingival thirds of the upper incisors --- 26. Retroclination is commonly seen in: · A) Class I malocclusion · B) Class II division 1 malocclusion · C) Class II division 2 malocclusion · D) Class III malocclusion Answer: C) Class II division 2 malocclusion --- 27. Normal gingival display is approximately: · A) 0 mm · B) 1 mm · C) 2 mm · D) 5 mm Answer: C) 2 mm --- 28. Excessive buccal corridors are associated with: · A) Broad dental arches · B) Collapsed upper arch and lingual crown torque · C) Normal arch form · D) Flared anterior teeth Answer: B) Collapsed upper arch and lingual crown torque --- Profile Analysis 29. A convex profile indicates: · A) Skeletal Class I relationship · B) Skeletal Class II relationship · C) Skeletal Class III relationship · D) Normal relationship Answer: B) Skeletal Class II relationship --- 30. A concave profile indicates: · A) Skeletal Class I relationship · B) Skeletal Class II relationship · C) Skeletal Class III relationship · D) Normal relationship Answer: C) Skeletal Class III relationship --- 31. In a normal (Class I) skeletal relationship, the upper jaw lies: · A) 5-6 mm in front of the lower · B) 2-4 mm in front of the lower · C) 1-2 mm behind the lower · D) 4-5 mm behind the lower Answer: B) 2-4 mm in front of the lower --- 32. A decreased nasolabial angle may be caused by: · A) Maxillary deficiency · B) Maxillary excess · C) Thin upper lip · D) High nasal tip Answer: B) Maxillary excess --- 33. An increased nasolabial angle may be caused by: · A) Maxillary excess · B) Maxillary dentoalveolar protrusion · C) Thick upper lip · D) Maxillary dentoalveolar retrusion Answer: D) Maxillary dentoalveolar retrusion --- 34. In the E-line (Ricketts' esthetic line), the normal upper lip position is: · A) On the E-line · B) 2-4 mm behind E-line · C) 5-6 mm behind E-line · D) In front of E-line Answer: B) 2-4 mm behind E-line --- 35. In the E-line, the normal lower lip position is: · A) On the E-line · B) 1-2 mm behind E-line · C) 3-4 mm behind E-line · D) In front of E-line Answer: B) 1-2 mm behind E-line --- 36. A steep mandibular plane angle usually indicates: · A) Short anterior facial height · B) Long anterior facial height and skeletal open bite tendency · C) Deep bite malocclusion · D) Normal facial height Answer: B) Long anterior facial height and skeletal open bite tendency --- 37. A flat (smaller) mandibular plane angle correlates with: · A) Skeletal open bite · B) Long anterior facial height · C) Short anterior facial height and deep bite malocclusion · D) Normal facial proportions
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ORTHODONTIC EXAMINATION : Multiple-Choice Questions from Orthodontic Examination Personal Data and Patient Information 1. What is the first step in building a good relationship between the doctor and the patient? · A) Recording medical history · B) Knowing the patient's name · C) Performing clinical examination · D) Taking radiographs Answer: B) Knowing the patient's name --- 2. Why is the patient's sex important in orthodontic treatment planning? · A) It affects appliance selection only · B) Females usually reach growth spurts and puberty earlier than males · C) It determines the type of anesthesia needed · D) It has no effect on treatment planning Answer: B) Females usually reach growth spurts and puberty earlier than males --- 3. Chronological age is important for maintaining: · A) Only treatment cost estimates · B) Shedding and eruption timetables · C) Appliance selection only · D) Medication dosage Answer: B) Shedding and eruption timetables --- 4. The patient's or parent's occupation gives an idea about: · A) Dental development · B) Socioeconomic status · C) Genetic predisposition · D) Growth potential Answer: B) Socioeconomic status --- Chief Complaint 5. The chief complaint should be written in: · A) Medical terminology · B) The patient's own words · C) Technical dental terms · D) The doctor's interpretation Answer: B) The patient's own words --- 6. Which is NOT a typical chief complaint reason for seeking orthodontic consultation? · A) Impaired esthetics · B) Impaired function · C) Financial concerns · D) "My teeth looks ugly" Answer: C) Financial concerns --- Medical and Dental History 7. Which medical condition may affect orthodontic force levels? · A) Asthma · B) Diabetes · C) Arthritis · D) All of the above Answer: B) Diabetes --- 8. Arthritis can: · A) Accelerate tooth movement · B) Inhibit tooth movement · C) Have no effect on tooth movement · D) Only affect root resorption Answer: B) Inhibit tooth movement --- 9. Asthma is associated with: · A) Growth deficiency · B) Root resorption · C) Asymmetry · D) Increased tooth movement Answer: B) Root resorption --- 10. What is essential before starting orthodontic treatment? · A) Nutritional counseling · B) Good oral health and regular dental care · C) Psychological evaluation · D) Speech therapy Answer: B) Good oral health and regular dental care --- 11. Bad forceps application during delivery may cause: · A) Cleft lip · B) TMJ injury affecting mandibular growth · C) Dental caries · D) Tooth malformation Answer: B) TMJ injury affecting mandibular growth --- 12. Thalidomide use during pregnancy may cause: · A) Dental fluorosis · B) Congenital deformities · C) Early tooth eruption · D) Increased caries risk Answer: B) Congenital deformities --- Family History 13. Which malocclusion has a strong genetic component (Habsburg Jaw)? · A) Class I malocclusion · B) Class II malocclusion · C) Class III malocclusion · D) Open bite Answer: C) Class III malocclusion --- 14. Congenital anomalies that may be inherited include: · A) Dental caries · B) Cleft lip and palate · C) Periodontal disease · D) Dental fluorosis Answer: B) Cleft lip and palate --- Social and Behavioral Evaluation 15. Highly motivated patients show: · A) Poorer cooperation · B) Better cooperation and results · C) No difference in treatment outcome · D) Increased treatment time Answer: B) Better cooperation and results --- 16. Treatment success depends on patient's compliance with all EXCEPT: · A) Oral hygiene · B) Appliance wear · C) Regular appointments · D) Dietary supplements Answer: D) Dietary supplements --- Facial Examination - Frontal Analysis 17. The facial index is calculated as: · A) Height × Width · B) Width / Height × 100% · C) Height / Width × 100% · D) Width + Height / 2 Answer: B) Width / Height × 100% --- 18. A dolicocephalic head shape is: · A) Broad and short · B) Long and narrow · C) Average shape · D) Round shape Answer: B) Long and narrow --- 19. Dolicocephalic head shape is usually accompanied by:
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- MCQ : د/عقلان . جاب منهم لجامعه الجند : ⬇️⬇️⬇️⬇️⬇️⬇️⬇️⬇️⬇️⬇️⬇️⬇️
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-اضافه للاسئلة المقاليه للاختبار النهائي جامعه الجند : • قناة اللّجنة العلمية⁶.| • قناة الفهرس. • بوت التّواصل الخاص باللّجنة+2
-اضافه للاسئلة المقاليه للاختبار النهائي جامعه الجند : • قناة اللّجنة العلمية⁶.| • قناة الفهرس. • بوت التّواصل الخاص باللّجنة↫.         . @Khalifa577_bot
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- Midterm exam : orthodontics - جامعة الجند • قناة اللّجنة العلمية⁶.| • قناة الفهرس. • بوت التّواصل الخاص باللّجنة↫. . @Khali+1
- Midterm exam : orthodontics - جامعة الجند • قناة اللّجنة العلمية⁶.| • قناة الفهرس. • بوت التّواصل الخاص باللّجنة↫.         . @Khalifa577_bot
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- • تسجيل #بصيغة_أوضح للمحاضرة السابعة والثامنة نظري| بعنوان: - Biomechanics of tooth movement - Anchorage. #Orthodontics². - د. عقلان الكامل. • قناة اللّجنة العلمية⁶. • قناة الفهرس. • بوت التّواصل الخاص باللّجنة↫.         . @Khalifa577_bot
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- الاسئله المقاليه لجامعه الجند -بالاضافه الى مسألة عن Bolton's analysis • قناة اللّجنة العلمية⁶.| • قناة الفهرس. • بوت التّو+2
- الاسئله المقاليه لجامعه الجند -بالاضافه الى مسألة عن Bolton's analysis • قناة اللّجنة العلمية⁶.| • قناة الفهرس. • بوت التّواصل الخاص باللّجنة↫.         . @Khalifa577_bot
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- اختبار جامعة الرواد (تقويم اسنان٢) -د/عقلان الكامل - طبعا ذا الاختبار من محاضرة الExamination ,إلى عند Landmarks حق السيفال+4
- اختبار جامعة الرواد (تقويم اسنان٢) -د/عقلان الكامل - طبعا ذا الاختبار من محاضرة الExamination ,إلى عند Landmarks حق السيفالو فقط . *- اما بالنسبه للسوال المقالي كان عباره عن مسألة عن Bolton’s analysis . • قناة اللّجنة العلمية⁶.| • قناة الفهرس. • بوت التّواصل الخاص باللّجنة↫.         . @Khalifa577_bot
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- اختبار جامعة الرواد (تقويم اسنان٢) -د/عقلان الكامل - طبعا ذا الاختبار من محاضرة الExamination ,إلى عند Landmarks حق السيفال+4
- اختبار جامعة الرواد (تقويم اسنان٢) -د/عقلان الكامل - طبعا ذا الاختبار من محاضرة الExamination ,إلى عند Landmarks حق السيفالو فقط . *- اما بالنسبه للسوال المقالي كان عباره عن مسألة عن Bolton’s analysis . • قناة اللّجنة العلمية⁶.| • قناة الفهرس. • بوت التّواصل الخاص باللّجنة↫.         . @Khalifa577_bot
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- اختبار جامعة الرواد (تقويم اسنان٢) -د/عقلان الكامل - طبعا ذا الاختبار من محاضرة الExamination ,إلى عند Landmarks حق السيفال+4
- اختبار جامعة الرواد (تقويم اسنان٢) -د/عقلان الكامل - طبعا ذا الاختبار من محاضرة الExamination ,إلى عند Landmarks حق السيفالو فقط . *- اما بالنسبه للسوال المقالي كان عباره عن مسألة عن Bolton’s analysis . • قناة اللّجنة العلمية⁶.| • قناة الفهرس. • بوت التّواصل الخاص باللّجنة↫.         . @Khalifa577_bot
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