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Phase 2 اسئلة ال

Phase 2 اسئلة ال

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( سَنُقْرِئُكَ فَلا تَنْسَى إِلا مَا شَاءَ اللَّهُ )

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User Q51- A sixty five years-old diabetic man presented to the emergency department with sudden painless visual loss of his right eye, On examination: his VA was: counting fingers three feet * 6/9, normal anterior segment. Your probable diagnosis is: (A) Senile cataract (B) Vitreous hemorrhage (C) Angle closure glaucoma (D) Optic neuritis (E) Age related maculopathy Q52- A 30 years old patient prim parous in her 35 weeks’ gestation presented with a history of lower abdominal pain colicky in nature every 3-4 mins. With yellowish vaginal discharge. her pregnancy is complicated by preeclampsia and she is on treatment. by examination she is 5 cm cervical dilation, how often you should auscultate fetal heart in the first stage of labor? (A) 60 mins. (B) 30 mins. (C) 15 mins. (D) 20 mins. (E) continuous monitoring. Q53- A 36 years old female presented with a heavy menstrual bleeding in the last one year .According to the available evidences, all women with heavy menstrual bleeding need to have: (A) Endometrial biopsy. (B) Full blood count assessment to exclude hematological disorders. (C) Thyroid function test. (D) Cervical smear. (E) Hysteroscopic assessment of the endometrium. Q54- A 6 years old female with short stature , webbed neck, wide nipples, the most likely diagnosis is: (A) Klinefelter's syndrome (B) Down syndrome (C) Trisomy 13 (D) Turner syndrome (E) Trisomy 18 Q55- A 26 years old woman presented with severe abdominal pain and had a positive pregnancy test. Ultrasound examination showed 4.5 cm right adnexial mass with large amount of fluid in the pouch of Douglas suggestive of ectopic pregnancy. She is very pale with Blood pressure of 80/40 mmHg and pulse rate of 120 beats/min. The best management would be: (A) Laparoscopic salpingectomy. (B) Laparoscopic oophorectomy. (C) Expectant management with serial B-hCG. (D) Methotrexate. ChatGPT Q51- The most probable diagnosis for the sixty-five-year-old diabetic man with sudden painless visual loss in his right eye is: (D) Optic neuritis. Optic neuritis is characterized by inflammation of the optic nerve, leading to visual loss. It can present with sudden painless vision loss, as described in the scenario. In diabetic individuals, optic neuritis may occur due to ischemic damage to the optic nerve. Further evaluation and management would be necessary to confirm the diagnosis and determine the underlying cause. Q52- In the first stage of labor in a primiparous patient at 35 weeks' gestation with 5 cm cervical dilation, the recommended frequency for auscultating the fetal heart is: (C) 15 mins. During the active phase of labor in a low-risk pregnancy, it is generally recommended to auscultate the fetal heart every 15 minutes. This allows for regular monitoring of the fetal heart rate and ensures timely identification of any abnormalities or changes in fetal well-being. However, the frequency of auscultation may vary based on individual patient factors and clinical judgment. Q53- According to the available evidence, all women with heavy menstrual bleeding need to have: (A) Endometrial biopsy. In cases of heavy menstrual bleeding, an endometrial biopsy is indicated to evaluate the endometrial lining and rule out endometrial pathology, such as endometrial hyperplasia or endometrial cancer. It helps determine the underlying cause of the heavy bleeding and guide appropriate management decisions. Q54- A six-year-old female with short stature, webbed neck, and wide nipples is most likely diagnosed with: (D) Turner syndrome. Turner syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects females and is characterized by the absence or abnormalities of one of the X chromosomes. Clinical features can include short stature, webbed neck, wide-spaced nipples, and other physical abnormalities. Genetic testing and evaluation are necessary for confirmation of the diagnosis.

The probable diagnosis in this case is: (E) Age-related maculopathy (also known as age-related macular degeneration or AMD) AMD is a common cause of painless visual loss, especially in the elderly population. It is characterized by degenerative changes in the macula, which is responsible for central vision. The presentation may vary, but a sudden painless visual loss is consistent with the condition. Senile cataract (option A) typically causes a gradual, progressive loss of vision and is less likely to present suddenly with painless visual loss. Vitreous hemorrhage (option 😎 would usually cause a sudden onset of visual loss, but it is typically associated with floaters and decreased visual acuity. Angle closure glaucoma (option C) is characterized by acute, severe eye pain, blurred vision, and sometimes associated with symptoms like headache and nausea. It is less likely to present with painless visual loss. Optic neuritis (option D) typically presents with subacute or acute painful vision loss, often accompanied by eye pain, eye movement exacerbation of symptoms, and changes in color perception. Therefore, considering the patient's age, sudden painless visual loss, and normal anterior segment on examination, age-related maculopathy (AMD) is the most likely diagnosis. User Q50- A 22 years old female is undergoing an MRI study of the spinal column for severe backache. Contraindications to MRI include all of the followings EXCEPT: (A) Intracranial clips (B) Metallic foreign bodies anywhere in the body like plating and screwing, shells (C) Pediatric patient less than 5 year old (D) Pacemaker (E) Cochlear implants ChatGPT The correct answer is (C) Pediatric patient less than 5 years old. MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging) is a non-invasive imaging technique that uses a strong magnetic field and radio waves to generate detailed images of the body's internal structures. While MRI is generally considered safe, there are certain contraindications due to the presence of metallic objects or devices that can be affected by the magnetic field. Contraindications to MRI include: (A) Intracranial clips: Metallic clips used in neurosurgery to treat intracranial aneurysms or other conditions may be affected by the magnetic field and pose a risk. (B) Metallic foreign bodies anywhere in the body like plating and screwing, shells: Metallic objects, such as implants, prosthetics, or fragments, can be affected by the magnetic field and may cause movement or heating, leading to potential harm to the patient. (D) Pacemaker: Pacemakers and other implanted electronic devices may be affected by the strong magnetic field, potentially leading to device malfunction or interference with the device's function. (E) Cochlear implants: Cochlear implants are electronic devices used to help individuals with hearing loss. They can be affected by the magnetic field of an MRI scanner and may cause harm to the patient or affect the functioning of the implant. However, there is no specific contraindication for pediatric patients less than 5 years old. MRI can be performed on pediatric patients as long as appropriate protocols are followed, sedation if required, and the child's safety is ensured during the procedure. Therefore, the answer is (C) Pediatric patient less than 5 years old.

great note ✅ after thyroidectomy Bilateral incomplete RLN injury ———pt with dyspnea Unilateral RLN injury——pt with hoarseness Bilateral complete RLN injury ——pt with aphonia External laryngeal nerve injury——pt loss high pitched voice

احد يفرقلي Complete عن incomplete Laryngeal N بشكل مفصل

باجر الامتحان 3 ساعات؟

عده PE مفروض continuous

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Every 15 min مو ؟
Every 15 min مو ؟

يلا

نسوي لايڤ ستريم (بث مباشر ) ونحل الاسالة ؟ 🤣

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المفروض a
المفروض a

هاي شنو
هاي شنو

متدزولنا هذا الملف المحلول😔😂

؟
؟

عيني ملخص مفيد اي حل دتشوفو بالملفات مو شرط هو الصح لان حاليا عندي ٤ ملفات كلمن حال شكل فلاتعتمدون دزو وخنتناقش احسن

صحيح

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