Mission AIIMS DELHI🎯
Open in Telegram
This channel provides imp info. about all competitive Examination. If anyone has copyright issues contact me. For promotion @Nurseshub1 8209295593 For Online Test Download Below App https://play.google.com/store/apps/details?id=co.marshal.ooczo
Show more📈 Analytical overview of Telegram channel Mission AIIMS DELHI🎯
Channel Mission AIIMS DELHI🎯 (@nurseshub) in the English language segment is an active participant. Currently, the community unites 20 640 subscribers, ranking 9 641 in the Education category and 20 472 in the India region.
📊 Audience metrics and dynamics
Since its creation on невідомо, the project has demonstrated rapid growth, gathering an audience of 20 640 subscribers.
According to the latest data from 08 July, 2026, the channel demonstrates stable activity. Although there has been a change in the number of participants by -38 over the last 30 days and by -2 over the last 24 hours, overall reach remains high.
- Verification status: Not verified
- Engagement rate (ER): The average audience engagement rate is 30.32%. Within the first 24 hours after publication, content typically collects 6.85% reactions from the total number of subscribers.
- Post reach: On average, each post receives 6 252 views. Within the first day, a publication typically gains 1 413 views.
- Reactions and interaction: The audience actively supports content: the average number of reactions per post is 4.
- Thematic interests: Content is focused on key topics such as nurse, norcet, rrb, nursing, patient.
📝 Description and content policy
The author describes the resource as a platform for expressing subjective opinions:
“This channel provides imp info. about all competitive Examination.
If anyone has copyright issues contact me.
For promotion
@Nurseshub1
8209295593
For Online Test Download Below App
https://play.google.com/store/apps/details?id=co.marshal.ooczo”
Thanks to the high frequency of updates (latest data received on 09 July, 2026), the channel maintains relevance and a high level of publication reach. Analytics show that the audience actively interacts with content, making it an important point of influence in the Education category.
20 640
Subscribers
-224 hours
-217 days
-3830 days
Data loading in progress...
Similar Channels
Tags Cloud
Incoming and Outgoing Mentions
---
---
---
---
---
---
Attracting Subscribers
July '26
July '26
+29
in 5 channels
June '26
+94
in 5 channels
Get PRO
May '26
+77
in 5 channels
Get PRO
April '26
+45
in 5 channels
Get PRO
March '26
+83
in 6 channels
Get PRO
February '26
+150
in 5 channels
Get PRO
January '26
+69
in 5 channels
Get PRO
December '25
+54
in 6 channels
Get PRO
November '25
+50
in 5 channels
Get PRO
October '25
+64
in 5 channels
Get PRO
September '25
+60
in 4 channels
Get PRO
August '25
+158
in 5 channels
Get PRO
July '25
+148
in 6 channels
Get PRO
June '25
+95
in 4 channels
Get PRO
May '25
+157
in 8 channels
Get PRO
April '25
+70
in 5 channels
Get PRO
March '25
+103
in 5 channels
Get PRO
February '25
+160
in 6 channels
Get PRO
January '25
+232
in 5 channels
Get PRO
December '24
+162
in 5 channels
Get PRO
November '24
+352
in 5 channels
Get PRO
October '24
+538
in 6 channels
Get PRO
September '24
+602
in 6 channels
Get PRO
August '24
+1 295
in 8 channels
Get PRO
July '24
+1 359
in 6 channels
Get PRO
June '24
+1 290
in 8 channels
Get PRO
May '24
+1 087
in 5 channels
Get PRO
April '24
+1 867
in 6 channels
Get PRO
March '24
+2 358
in 8 channels
Get PRO
February '24
+1 375
in 9 channels
Get PRO
January '24
+1 544
in 6 channels
Get PRO
December '23
+789
in 4 channels
Get PRO
November '23
+195
in 5 channels
Get PRO
October '23
+238
in 4 channels
Get PRO
September '23
+384
in 0 channels
Get PRO
August '23
+558
in 0 channels
Get PRO
July '23
+895
in 0 channels
Get PRO
June '23
+593
in 0 channels
Get PRO
May '23
+270
in 0 channels
Get PRO
April '23
+234
in 0 channels
Get PRO
March '23
+434
in 0 channels
Get PRO
February '23
+572
in 0 channels
Get PRO
January '23
+183
in 0 channels
Get PRO
December '22
+169
in 0 channels
Get PRO
November '22
+119
in 0 channels
Get PRO
October '22
+155
in 0 channels
Get PRO
September '22
+170
in 0 channels
Get PRO
August '22
+170
in 0 channels
Get PRO
July '22
+198
in 0 channels
Get PRO
June '22
+187
in 0 channels
Get PRO
May '22
+310
in 0 channels
Get PRO
April '22
+214
in 0 channels
Get PRO
March '22
+240
in 0 channels
Get PRO
February '22
+130
in 0 channels
Get PRO
January '22
+150
in 0 channels
Get PRO
December '21
+196
in 0 channels
Get PRO
November '21
+132
in 0 channels
Get PRO
October '21
+164
in 0 channels
Get PRO
September '21
+141
in 0 channels
Get PRO
August '21
+113
in 0 channels
Get PRO
July '21
+133
in 0 channels
Get PRO
June '21
+202
in 0 channels
Get PRO
May '21
+126
in 0 channels
Get PRO
April '21
+85
in 0 channels
Get PRO
March '21
+3 327
in 0 channels
| Date | Subscriber Growth | Mentions | Channels | |
| 10 July | 0 | |||
| 09 July | +20 | |||
| 08 July | 0 | |||
| 07 July | +3 | |||
| 06 July | 0 | |||
| 05 July | 0 | |||
| 04 July | 0 | |||
| 03 July | +5 | |||
| 02 July | 0 | |||
| 01 July | +1 |
Channel Posts
*Complete List of Antidotes*
### *1. Drug Overdose & Poisoning Antidotes*
Poison/Drug Antidote Key Points
Paracetamol/Acetaminophen N-acetylcysteine (NAC) Most effective within 8-10 hrs. Oral or IV
Opioids - Morphine, Heroin Naloxone Reverses respiratory depression. Short half-life, may need repeat dose
Benzodiazepines Flumazenil Use cautiously - can precipitate seizures in mixed overdose
Digoxin Digoxin Immune Fab (Digibind) For life-threatening toxicity, arrhythmias, K+ >5.5
Beta-blockers Glucagon Increases cAMP. Atropine + IV fluids also used
Calcium Channel Blockers Calcium gluconate + Glucagon + Insulin + Glucose "High dose insulin euglycemic therapy"
Warfarin Vitamin K, FFP, Prothrombin Complex Vitamin K for mild, FFP for bleeding
Heparin Protamine Sulfate 1mg protamine neutralizes ~100 units heparin
Iron Deferoxamine Chelates iron. Red urine = therapeutic
Lead, Mercury, Arsenic BAL (Dimercaprol) Chelating agent. "British Anti-Lewisite"
Lead, Iron Deferoxamine Also used for iron
Lead, Arsenic, Mercury DMSA (Succimer) Oral chelator, safer for children
Lead, Copper D-Penicillamine Oral chelator
Copper, Gold, Arsenic Trientine Alternative to penicillamine
Methanol, Ethylene Glycol Fomepizole or Ethanol Blocks alcohol dehydrogenase
Cyanide Hydroxocobalamin, Sodium Nitrite + Sodium Thiosulfate "Cyanide antidote kit"
Organophosphates Atropine + Pralidoxime (2-PAM) Atropine for muscarinic, 2-PAM for nicotinic
Carbamates Atropine only No 2-PAM needed
Radioactive Iodine Potassium Iodide (KI) Blocks thyroid uptake
Radioactive Cesium, Thallium Prussian Blue Enhances fecal excretion
Tricyclic Antidepressants Sodium Bicarbonate For QRS widening, arrhythmias
Isoniazid (INH) Pyridoxine (Vitamin B6) Prevents seizures
Methotrexate Leucovorin (Folinic Acid) "Rescue therapy"
Sulfonylureas Octreotide + Glucose Prevents hypoglycemia
Methylene Blue For Nitrite-induced Methemoglobinemia 1-2 mg/kg IV
### *2. Snake Bite & Animal Bites*
Bite Antidote
Snake bite - Indian 4 venomous Polyvalent Anti-Snake Venom (ASV)
Rabies Rabies Immunoglobulin + Rabies Vaccine
### *3. Other Important Antidotes*
Condition Antidote
Magnesium Sulfate Toxicity Calcium Gluconate
Local Anesthetic Toxicity Intralipid 20%
Nitroglycerin Headache No specific antidote - supportive
Steroid Overdose No antidote - taper slowly
### *4. NORCET High-Yield MCQs*
*Q1.* Antidote for Paracetamol poisoning?
A) Naloxone
B) N-acetylcysteine
C) Flumazenil
D) Protamine
*Ans: B*
*Q2.* Antidote for Organophosphorus poisoning?
A) Atropine + Pralidoxime
B) Naloxone + Flumazenil
C) Vitamin K + FFP
D) Deferoxamine
*Ans: A*
*Q3.* Protamine sulfate is used for:
A) Warfarin toxicity
B) Heparin toxicity
C) Digoxin toxicity
D) Iron toxicity
*Ans: B*
*Q4.* BAL is antidote for:
A) Lead, Arsenic, Mercury
B) Iron, Lead
C) Methanol
D) Cyanide
*Ans: A*
*Q5.* Hydroxocobalamin is used in:
A) Cyanide poisoning
B) CO poisoning
C) Methemoglobinemia
D) Benzodiazepine overdose
*Ans: A*
### *5. Memory Tricks*
1. *"PAN"*: *P*aracetamol = *N*AC
2. *"NO"*: *N*aloxone for *O*pioids
3. *"2 P's"*: *P*ralidoxime + *P*hosphates = OP poisoning
4. *"W.H.A.L.E."*: *W*arfarin = *V*itamin K, *H*eparin = *P*rotamine, *L*ead = *B*AL/DMSA, *E*thylene glycol = *F*omepizole
### *6. Nursing Responsibilities During Antidote Administration*
1. *Check vitals* before, during, after
2. *Monitor for anaphylaxis* - especially with ASV, Digibind
3. *IV site care* - many antidotes are vesicants
4. *Document* time, dose, route, patient response
5. *Supportive care* - O2, airway, IV fluids
| 2 | 100 FON MCQs PDF.pdf | 2 877 |
| 3 | The normal urine output for an adult is: | 1 499 |
| 4 | A nurse accidentally receives a needle-stick injury. What is the first action? | 1 370 |
| 5 | A nurse delegates the task of changing an occupied bed to a nursing assistant. The nurse remains responsible for: | 1 242 |
| 6 | The most appropriate site for measuring temperature in an unconscious adult is: | 1 235 |
| 7 | Q26. Which position is best for a patient after a lumbar puncture? | 1 212 |
| 8 |  Comment Your Answer In WhatsApp Channel...
Join WhatsApp Channel....
https://whatsapp.com/channel/0029Va5TPgxL7UVZlFBzD90D | 3 999 |
| 9 | Hypertonic fluids would worsen the hypernatremia, and isotonic fluids wouldn't shift water into the cells as effectively.
Download Nurses Hub App...
https://play.google.com/store/apps/details?id=co.marshal.ooczo | 2 671 |
| 10 | * C) From anterior (clitoris) to posterior (anus), using a new swab for each stroke
* D) Side-to-side, alternating between the left and right labia majora
* Answer: C
* Rationale: Perineal cleaning must always move from the area of least contamination to the area of greatest contamination (cleanest to dirtiest) — which means front-to-back, or clitoris to anus. This technique avoids dragging transient fecal flora into the sterile urethral opening, minimizing catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs).
### 7. Oxygenation, Acid-Base, & Special Fluid Balance
Q17. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed oxygen therapy. Why must the nurse exercise extreme caution when delivering oxygen concentrations greater than 2 to 3 L/min via nasal cannula to this patient?
* A) High concentrations can easily trigger hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis
* B) High oxygen levels can obliterate the hypoxic drive to breathe, causing respiratory arrest
* C) Higher flow rates rapidly dry out the nasal mucosa and cause epistaxis
* D) COPD patients have fragile alveoli that can rupture from high-flow pressure
* Answer: B
* Rationale: In healthy individuals, the respiratory center is driven by elevated carbon dioxide (CO_2) levels. In chronic COPD patients, the body adjusts to long-term high CO_2 retention, and breathing becomes driven by low oxygen levels (hypoxic drive). Administering excessive supplemental oxygen can signal the brain that oxygen levels are fine, causing the patient to stop breathing entirely.
Q18. A patient's arterial blood gas (ABG) results show: pH = 7.30, PaCO_2 = 55 \text{ mmHg}, and HCO_3^- = 24 \text{ mEq/L}. How should the nurse interpret these results?
* A) Uncompensated Metabolic Acidosis
* B) Fully Compensated Respiratory Acidosis
* C) Uncompensated Respiratory Acidosis
* D) Partially Compensated Metabolic Alkalosis
* Answer: C
* Rationale: Let's break down the values:
* pH = 7.30 (Normal is 7.35–7.45; this indicates acidosis).
* PaCO_2 = 55 \text{ mmHg} (Normal is 35–45 mmHg; this indicates elevated acid/respiratory cause).
* HCO_3^- = 24 \text{ mEq/L} (Normal is 22–26 mEq/L; this is normal, meaning the kidneys have not begun compensating).
Therefore, the primary condition is Uncompensated Respiratory Acidosis.
Q19. The nurse is caring for a patient who is actively receiving a unit of packed red blood cells. Fifteen minutes into the transfusion, the patient complains of chills, lower back pain, and shortness of breath. What is the nurse's immediate priority action?
* A) Slow down the infusion rate and notify the health care provider
* B) Administer an absolute dose of IV diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
* C) Stop the blood transfusion immediately and disconnect the tubing at the hub
* D) Recheck the patient's identification band against the blood bag label
* Answer: C
* Rationale: Chills, dyspnea, and acute lower back pain point to an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction (usually an ABO incompatibility). The primary, life-saving action is to immediately stop the transfusion, disconnect the blood tubing from the IV hub, and hang normal saline with new tubing to keep the vein open. The transfusion should never just be slowed down during a suspected reaction.
Q20. An adult patient is admitted with severe dehydration, a high serum sodium level (152 mEq/L), and an elevated serum osmolality. Which type of intravenous fluid should the nurse anticipate the physician will order to rehydrate the intracellular compartment?
* A) 3% Hypertonic Saline
* B) 0.9% Normal Saline (Isotonic)
* C) 0.45% Half-Normal Saline (Hypotonic)
* D) Lactated Ringer's Solution
* Answer: C
* Rationale: The patient is in a hypertonic state with cellular dehydration. Administering a hypotonic solution like 0.45% Half-Normal Saline lowers serum osmolality and shifts free water out of the intravascular space into the dehydrated cells, restoring fluid balance. | 2 349 |
| 11 | Q11. The nurse is preparing to insert a nasogastric (NG) tube into an alert adult patient for decompression. Which position is most therapeutically appropriate for the patient during this procedure?
* A) Supine with the head flat
* B) Left lateral Sims' position
* C) High-Fowler’s position with the head tilted slightly forward
* D) Trendelenburg position to protect the airway
* Answer: C
* Rationale: High-Fowler’s position (sitting up at 60-90 degrees) uses gravity to aid the forward movement of the tube down the nasopharynx and reduces the risk of aspiration. Tilting the head slightly forward toward the chest helps close the trachea and open the esophagus, making tube advancement safer.
### 5. Wound Care, Pressure Injury, & Nursing Process
Q12. While assessing a bedridden patient, the nurse notes an area over the sacrum with non-blanchable erythema of intact skin. How should the nurse stage this pressure injury?
* A) Stage 1
* B) Stage 2
* C) Stage 3
* D) Unstageable
* Answer: A
* Rationale: According to NPUAP guidelines, Stage 1 pressure injuries present as localized areas of intact skin with non-blanchable erythema (redness that does not turn white when pressed). Stage 2 involves partial-thickness skin loss with an exposed dermis (blisters or shallow open ulcers).
Q13. During a surgical wound assessment, the nurse notes the presence of thick, yellow-green exudate with a foul odor. How should the nurse document this type of wound drainage?
* A) Serous drainage
* B) Sanguineous drainage
* C) Serosanguineous drainage
* D) Purulent drainage
* Answer: D
* Rationale: Thick, opaque, yellow, green, or brown drainage with a distinct odor is purulent drainage, which indicates an active bacterial infection. Serous is clear/watery, sanguineous is bright red blood, and serosanguineous is a pale pink mix of both.
Q14. The nurse writes the following statement in a patient’s care plan: *"The patient will ambulate 50 feet down the hallway independently by day 3 of admission."* This statement represents which phase of the nursing process?
* A) Assessment
* B) Nursing Diagnosis
* C) Planning (Outcome Identification)
* D) Evaluation
* Answer: C
* Rationale: Formulating measurable, patient-centered, time-bound goals and expected outcomes is a core task of the Planning phase. Evaluation compares the actual patient outcome against this predetermined goal.
### 6. Tube Feedings & Elimination Care
Q15. Before administering an intermittent nasogastric (NG) tube feeding, the nurse aspirates 120 mL of gastric residual volume (GRV). The prescribed feeding rate is 200 mL every 4 hours. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?
* A) Discard the aspirated residual and hold the feeding
* B) Return the residual to the stomach and administer the scheduled feeding
* C) Discard the residual and administer half the feeding dose
* D) Return the residual to the stomach and hold the feeding for 1 hour
* Answer: B
* Rationale: Current evidence-based clinical guidelines state that intermittent tube feedings should typically not be delayed or held for a gastric residual volume under 250 mL unless signs of intolerance (such as abdominal distension, nausea, or vomiting) are present. The residual must be returned to prevent electrolyte imbalances and fluid depletion.
Download Nurses Hub App...
https://play.google.com/store/apps/details?id=co.marshal.ooczo
Q16. The nurse is preparing to insert an indwelling urinary (Foley) catheter for a female patient. After separating the labia minora with the non-dominant hand, what is the correct direction to clean the perineal area with antiseptic swabs?
* A) From the posterior anus toward the clitoris
* B) In a circular motion around the vaginal orifice | 1 462 |
| 12 | Uninfected plastics/tubings go to red, but because it is stained heavily with blood/blood components, the yellow bag takes priority under BMW safety protocols.
Q6. The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with Pulmonary Tuberculosis. Which combination of Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) is mandatory before entering the patient's isolation room?
* A) Surgical mask and sterile gloves
* B) N95 respirator and clean gloves
* C) N95 respirator, gown, and face shield
* D) Fluid-resistant surgical gown and shoe covers
* Answer: B
* Rationale: Pulmonary tuberculosis spreads via airborne droplets. Airborne precautions dictate the absolute necessity of a particulate filtration mask, specifically an N95 respirator or higher, paired with standard clean hand hygiene/gloves. Gowns and face shields are only necessary if there is an active risk of body fluid splashing.
### 3. Medication Administration & Intravenous Therapy
Q7. A physician orders 1,000 mL of 0.9% Normal Saline to be infused over 8 hours. The drop factor of the IV infusion set is 15 drops/mL. At what rate (drops per minute) should the nurse regulate the flow?
* A) 21 drops/min
* B) 31 drops/min
* C) 42 drops/min
* D) 50 drops/min
* Answer: B
* Rationale: The standard IV flow rate formula is:
Q8. While administering an Intramuscular (IM) injection using the Z-track technique, what is the primary rationale for displacing the skin and subcutaneous tissue 1 to 1.5 inches laterally before needle insertion?
* A) To decrease the pain associated with a larger needle gauge
* B) To ensure the medication enters the deep muscle tissue rather than bone
* C) To prevent the medication from leaking back into the subcutaneous tissue
* D) To increase the absorption rate of the medication by expanding the muscle fibers
* Answer: C
* Rationale: The Z-track method seals dark or highly irritating medications (like iron preparations) deep inside muscle tissue. Displacing tissue laterally before inserting the needle creates a zigzag path when the tissue is released post-injection, trapping the drug in the muscle layer and preventing painful leakage back into subcutaneous tracts.
Q9. A patient receiving an intravenous infusion of an antibiotic complains of sudden burning, swelling, and coolness at the insertion site. The nurse notes that the fluid is not dripping. Which action should the nurse take first?
* A) Apply a warm compress to stimulate circulation
* B) Flush the IV cannula with 3 mL of normal saline to check patency
* C) Stop the infusion immediately and remove the catheter
* D) Lower the IV container below the arm level to check for blood return
* Answer: C
* Rationale: The patient’s signs (coolness, swelling, burning) explicitly point to IV infiltration (non-vesicant fluid leaking into tissue). The absolute first priority is to immediately halt the infusion to stop further tissue damage, followed by catheter removal and elevating the extremity. Flushing a suspected infiltration can worsen tissue injury.
Download Nurses Hub App...
https://play.google.com/store/apps/details?id=co.marshal.ooczo
### 4. Patient Positioning & Mobility
Q10. An elderly patient who underwent a total hip arthroplasty (hip replacement) 2 days ago is being positioned in bed. Which position or device must the nurse implement to prevent surgical joint dislocation?
* A) Adduction pillow between the thighs
* B) Abduction pillow between the legs
* C) High-Fowler's position during rest periods
* D) External rotation of the affected foot using a sandbag
* Answer: B
* Rationale: After hip arthroplasty, the hip must be kept in an abducted state (legs spread apart) to keep the femoral head securely nested inside the acetabulum. Adduction (crossing legs) or internal/external rotation can stress the surgical site and lead to dislocation. | 1 404 |
| 13 | Here is a set of 20 highly-targeted Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) in Fundamentals of Nursing (FON) meticulously framed according to the AIIMS NORCET clinical scenario-based exam pattern.
### 1. Critical Care & Vital Signs
Q1. A patient is admitted to the ICU with severe sepsis. While assessing vital signs, the nurse notes the patient’s respiratory rate is 28 breaths/min, and they are using accessory muscles. Which physiological state is the patient primarily trying to compensate for?
* A) Metabolic alkalosis
* B) Respiratory alkalosis
* C) Metabolic acidosis
* D) Respiratory acidosis
* Answer: C
* Rationale: In severe sepsis, tissue hypoperfusion leads to anaerobic metabolism and lactic acid buildup (metabolic acidosis). The body compensates through respiratory alkalosis by increasing the rate and depth of respirations (Kussmaul breathing) to blow off excess carbon dioxide (CO_2) and raise blood pH back toward normal.
Q2. While assessing an adult patient's arterial blood pressure, the nurse observes that the cuff width covers approximately 20% of the patient’s upper arm circumference. What error should the nurse expect in the reading?
* A) A falsely low systolic and diastolic reading
* B) A falsely high systolic and diastolic reading
* C) A falsely high systolic but normal diastolic reading
* D) A normal reading because length matters more than width
* Answer: B
* Rationale: According to standard nursing protocol, a blood pressure cuff width should be 40% of the arm circumference, and the bladder length should encircle 80% of it. Using a cuff that is too narrow or small forces the bladder to be over-inflated to occlude the artery, resulting in a falsely elevated (high) reading. Conversely, a cuff that is too wide causes falsely low readings.
Q3. The nurse is caring for a patient who has developed severe hypothermia (core temperature of 31°C). Which vital sign alteration should the nurse closely monitor for as the hypothermia progresses?
* A) Tachycardia and hypertension
* B) Bradycardia and bradypnea
* C) Tachycardia and tachypnea
* D) Bradycardia and hypertension
* Answer: B
* Rationale: As core temperature drops significantly, the body’s metabolic rate slows down. This directly depresses the sinoatrial (SA) node and the respiratory center in the brain stem, leading to progressive bradycardia, bradypnea, and hypotension.
### 2. Infection Control & Biomedical Waste Management (BMW)
Q4. While preparing to perform a sterile dressing change for a central venous catheter, the nurse accidentally touches the edge of the sterile drape with non-sterile gloves. Which action should the nurse take immediately?
* A) Continue the procedure as long as the center of the drape remains sterile
* B) Spray the touched edge with an antiseptic solution and proceed
* C) Discard the entire sterile kit and start over with a new sterile field
* D) Standardize the field by using sterile forceps to adjust the touched corner
* Answer: C
* Rationale: Strict surgical asepsis states that if any part of a sterile field is contaminated or touched by a non-sterile object, the entire field must be considered unsterile. To maintain patient safety and prevent central line-associated bloodstream infections (CLABSI), the nurse must discard the contaminated setup and establish a completely new sterile field.
Q5. A nurse has just completed a blood transfusion for a patient. According to the updated Biomedical Waste Management guidelines, into which color-coded bin should the empty blood bag and internal tubing set be disposed?
* A) Yellow bag
* B) Red bag
* C) Blue box
* D) Translucent/White puncture-proof container
* Answer: A
* Rationale: Blood bags, blood administration sets, and articles contaminated with blood or body fluids are classified as soiled waste with biohazard potential and must be discarded in the Yellow bag for incineration. | 1 892 |
| 14 | 226.pdf | 2 501 |
| 15 | सबसे सस्ते प्लान।। Cheapest Plan
आज ही Nurses Hub के Courses को Join करें और करे अपने RRB, AIIMS NORCET, Staff Nurse & CHO Exam की तेयारी ओर करे अपने सपने को साकार।
💻 Major Test
📝 Subjet wise Test
📕 Previous Year Paper Test/Pdf
🛄 Image Based Test Series
🌏 Non-Nursing Subject Test
> ◆ All In One Test Plan :- 699₹
> ◆ AIIMS NORCET Test Plan :- 399₹
> ◆ RRB Test Series :- 299 ₹
> ◆ KGMU LUCKNOW Test Series :- 299 ₹
> ◆ RML LUCKNOW Test Series :- 200 ₹
> ◆ 100+ Old Paper Test :- 150₹
> ◆ All state CHO Exam :- 299 ₹
> ◆ UP CHO TEST :- 199₹
> ◆ BIHAR CHO TEST :- 199₹
> ◆ Rajasthan CHO TEST :- 199₹
> ◆ Image Based Question Test :- 59₹
(All 6 Month Validity Plan Course Price)
आज ही जॉइन करे
Download App...
https://play.google.com/store/apps/details?id=co.marshal.ooczo
Join Nursing Related All Information...
Join WhatsApp Channel...
https://whatsapp.com/channel/0029Va5TPgxL7UVZlFBzD90D
Join Telegram....
https://t.me/nurseshub
Subscribe YouTube Channel...
https://www.youtube.com/c/Nurseshub
Share With Your Friends | 8 601 |
| 16 | 5_6197072122280419828.pdf | 8 373 |
| 17 | *High-yield, one-liner key points for the Cardiovascular System (CVS),*
Critical Nursing Interventions & Pharmacology
◆ *Digoxin Toxicity:* Hold Digoxin if the apical pulse is less than 60 bpm in adults (or less than 90 bpm in infants); early signs of toxicity include anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and classic yellow-green visual halos.
◆ *Hypokalemia & Digoxin:* Low serum potassium levels (K+ < 3.5mEq/L) drastically increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity because potassium and digoxin compete for the same binding sites on the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.
◆ *Thrombolytic Therapy Window:* The primary consideration when administering tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) or streptokinase for an acute MI is the time since the onset of chest pain symptoms (ideally within a 3 to 6-hour window).
◆ *Modifiable Risk Factors:* When counseling patients on coronary artery disease, smoking cessation is the most vital modifiable risk factor to target first.
◆ *Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT) Assessment:* Unilateral calf swelling, warmth, and redness point to a DVT; immediate nursing actions include putting the patient on bed rest and notifying the provider to prevent a fatal pulmonary embolism.
◆ *Central Venous Pressure (CVP):* Normal CVP ranges between 3 to 8 mmHg (or 5–10 cm H2O); an elevated CVP directly indicates fluid volume overload or right-sided heart failure.
Join WhatsApp Channel....
https://whatsapp.com/channel/0029Va5TPgxL7UVZlFBzD90D | 4 758 |
| 18 | *High-Yield Cardiovascular Disorders*
◆ *Myocardial Infarction (MI) Priority:* The single greatest risk to a patient within the first 24 hours of an acute MI is ventricular fibrillation (V-Fib); continuous ECG monitoring is the top nursing priority.
◆ *Angina vs. MI Pain:* Angina pectoris pain is typically relieved by rest or sublingual Nitroglycerin (NTG), whereas Myocardial Infarction pain is crushing, radiating, and unrelieved by NTG, requiring morphine.
◆ *Left-Sided Heart Failure:* Characterized predominantly by pulmonary congestion symptoms due to backflow into the lungs—look for dyspnea, crackles/rales, tachypnea, and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND).
◆ *Right-Sided Heart Failure:* Characterized predominantly by systemic venous congestion—look for Jugular Venous Distension (JVD), hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, and dependent pitting pedal edema.
◆ *Infective Endocarditis Signs:* Classic peripheral immunological and vascular manifestations include Osler's nodes (painful pads on fingers/toes), Janeway lesions (painless hemorrhagic spots on palms/soles), and Roth's spots (retinal hemorrhages).
◆ *Cardiac Tamponade (Beck’s Triad):* A life-threatening emergency presenting with the classic triad of hypotension, muffled heart sounds, and jugular venous distension (JVD), alongside pulsus paradoxus (systolic BP drop greater than 10 mmHg during inspiration).
Subscribe Nurses Hub Youtube Channel....
https://www.youtube.com/c/nurseshub | 2 998 |
| 19 | High-yield, one-liner key points for the Cardiovascular System (CVS),
● Pacemaker of the Heart: The Sinoatrial (SA) Node acts as the primary pacemaker because it possesses the highest intrinsic rate of impulse generation (60–100 bpm).
● AV Node Delay: The atrioventricular (AV) node delays the electrical impulse by approximately 0.1 second, allowing the atria to contract fully and empty their blood into the ventricles before ventricular systole begins.
● Heart Sounds: The first heart sound (S1, "Lub") marks the closure of the AV valves (tricuspid and mitral) at the start of systole, while the second heart sound (S2, "Dub") marks the closure of the semilunar valves (aortic and pulmonic) at the start of diastole.
● Coronary Artery Perfusion: Unlike most organs that receive blood during systole, the myocardium is perfused primarily during ventricular diastole when the aortic valve closes and coronary ostia open.
● Cardiac Output Formula: Calculated as Stroke Volume multiplied by Heart Rate (CO=SV×HR); normal resting cardiac output is approximately 5 Liters/minute.
Subscribe Nurses Hub Youtube Channel....
https://www.youtube.com/c/nurseshub | 3 155 |
| 20 | AIIMS NORCET 9 QUESTION.pdf | 8 382 |
