B.Sc. NURSING 💊💉

ECG Changes and Interpretations ECG Changes--> Interpretations 1.Shortened QT interval--> Hypercalcemia, some drugs, certain genetic abnormalities, hyperkalemia 2.Prolonged QT Interval--> Hypocalcemia, some drugs, certain genetic abnormalities 3. Flattened or Inverted T-waves--> Coronary ischemia, hypokalemia, left ventricular hypertrophy, digoxin effect, some drugs 4.Hyperacute T-waves--> Possibly the first manifestation of acute myocardial infarction, where T waves become more prominent, symmetrical, and pointed 5. Peaked T wave, ORS wide, prolonged PR, QT short --> Hyperkalemia, treat with calcium chloride, glucose and insulin or dialysis 6. Prominent U-waves--> Hypokalemia

1) What nutrient deficiency causes goiter? Ans.lodine 2) Which structures act as wires of a telephone in the body? Ans.Nerves 3) What are the immediate side effects of Electroconvulsive therapy? Ans.Temporary loss and confusion 4) Antipsychotic drugs are prescribed to decrease the psychotic symptoms by Ans.Blocking the action of dopamine in the brain 5) Which AV block is also referred to as Mobitz-|| Ans.Second Degree AV Block 6) Osmotic pressure and Acid-base balance of body fluids are maintained by Ans.Sodium 7) Which is the most suitable position for giving an enema? Ans.Left lateral position 8) Which of the following is termed as the fetal blood vessel lying over the internal os, in front of the presenting part? Ans.Vasa previa 9) Facial palsy is also known as Ans.Bell's palsy 10) An individual expressing his failures and difficulties by blaming others is known as Ans.Projection

6) Schultze method and Matthew Duncan method describe: Ans.Methods of detachment of placenta 7) Bleeding in the first trimester with no uterine contraction or pain and no dilation of cervix indicates: Ans. Threatened abortion 8) Which of the below is an example of unintentional tort? Ans.Negligence 9) The mode of inheritance of cystic fibrosis is: Ans.Autosomal recessive 10) Repeated involuntary or intentional passage of feces by a child in inappropriate places, after the age when bowel control is normally expected, is called: Ans.Encopresis

Quiz Solutions 1) Effective approach in preventing pulmonary embolism is to prevent Ans.Deep Vein Thrombosis 2) The number of new cases occurring in a defined population during a specified period of time is called Ans.Incidence 3) Where does the fertilization takes place? Ans. Ampulla 4) In which year the CSSM Programme was initiated? Ans.1992 5) How much population is covered by a community health centre? Ans.80000 to 120000

1. The nurse is caring for a client with a suspected peptic ulcer. Which dietary modification should the nurse recommend to the client? a) Increase spicy food intake. b) Consume a high-fiber diet. c) Limit caffeine consumption. d) Avoid dairy products. 2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed oxygen therapy. Which nursing intervention is essential when administering oxygen to this client? a) Administer oxygen via a nasal cannula. b) Provide oxygen continuously at a high flow rate. c) Encourage deep breathing exercises. d) Monitor oxygen saturation levels regularly. 3. The nurse is caring for a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) who is prescribed enoxaparin (Lovenox). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor closely to evaluate the effectiveness and safety of the medication? a) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) b) Prothrombin time (PT) c) International normalized ratio (INR) d) Platelet count 4. A client is scheduled for a computed tomography (CT) scan with contrast dye. Before the procedure, which action should the nurse take? a) Administer a sedative medication. b) Ask the client about any allergies to iodine or shellfish. c) Instruct the client to fast for 12 hours. d) Restrict fluid intake. 5. The nurse is caring for a client with a head injury. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention? a) Drowsiness and confusion b) Slurred speech c) Unequal pupils d) Bruising around the eyes (raccoon eyes) Answers: 1. c) Limit caffeine consumption. 2. d) Monitor oxygen saturation levels regularly. 3. a) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) 4. b) Ask the client about any allergies to iodine or shellfish. 5. c) Unequal pupils.

1. The nurse is caring for a client with pneumonia who has been prescribed antibiotics. Which nursing intervention is the highest priority for this client? a) Administer antipyretics as ordered. b) Encourage deep breathing and coughing exercises. c) Administer pain medication as needed. d) Monitor oxygen saturation levels. 2. A client is admitted with a suspected myocardial infarction (MI). Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate being ordered to confirm the diagnosis? a) Electrocardiogram (ECG) b) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) c) Chest x-ray d) Complete blood count (CBC) 3. The nurse is assessing a client with cirrhosis. Which finding would the nurse interpret as a manifestation of hepatic encephalopathy? a) Elevated blood ammonia levels b) Hyperactive bowel sounds c) Increased serum albumin levels d) Hypertension 4. A client with a history of epilepsy is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin). Which statement made by the client indicates understanding of the medication? a) "I will take the medication with meals." b) "I will avoid activities that require mental alertness." c) "I can stop taking the medication if I feel better." d) "I will schedule regular blood tests to monitor the medication level." 5. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic renal failure. Which dietary modification should the nurse recommend to the client? a) Increase sodium intake. b) Decrease fluid intake. c) Limit protein consumption. d) Increase potassium intake. 6. A client is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) for anticoagulation therapy. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor closely to evaluate the effectiveness and safety of the medication? a) Platelet count b) Prothrombin time (PT) c) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) d) Serum electrolytes 7. The nurse is caring for a client with a fractured femur. Which nursing intervention is the highest priority to prevent complications? a) Administer pain medication as ordered. b) Provide range of motion exercises to unaffected joints. c) Elevate the affected limb. d) Monitor neurovascular status regularly. 8. A client with type 1 diabetes is experiencing symptoms of hypoglycemia. Which intervention should the nurse implement first? a) Administer glucagon subcutaneously. b) Provide a carbohydrate snack or beverage. c) Check the client's blood glucose level. d) Assess the client's level of consciousness. 9. The nurse is caring for a client with heart failure. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention? a) Weight gain of 1 pound in 24 hours b) Edema in the ankles at the end of the day c) Urine output of 30 mL per hour d) Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg 10. A client with asthma is prescribed a short-acting beta-agonist inhaler (e.g., albuterol). Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client? a) "Use the inhaler only when you have an asthma attack." b) "Use the inhaler before using a long-acting bronchodilator." c) "Take one puff every 4 hours as needed for symptoms." d) "Rinse your mouth with water after using the inhaler." Answers: 1. d) Monitor oxygen saturation levels. 2. a) Electrocardiogram (ECG) 3. a) Elevated blood ammonia levels 4. d) "I will schedule regular blood tests to monitor the medication level." 5. c) Limit protein consumption. 6. b) Prothrombin time (PT) 7. d) Monitor neurovascular status regularly. 8. d) Assess the client's level of consciousness. 9. c) Urine output of 30 mL per hour 10. d) "Rinse your mouth with water after using the inhaler."

1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing respiratory distress. Which of the following interventions should the nurse prioritize? a) Administer bronchodilators as ordered. b) Monitor arterial blood gas (ABG) levels. c) Administer oxygen therapy. d) Assist with pursed-lip breathing exercises. 2. The nurse is caring for a client with diabetes mellitus who is prescribed insulin glargine (Lantus). Which statement made by the client indicates understanding of the medication? a) "I will administer this medication 30 minutes before meals." b) "I will store the medication in the freezer to prolong its shelf life." c) "I can mix this insulin with other types of insulin." d) "I should administer this medication at the same time each day." 3. A client with hypertension is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ). Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further education about the medication? a) "I should take this medication in the morning to prevent nighttime urination." b) "I will monitor my blood pressure regularly." c) "I should increase my intake of potassium-rich foods while taking this medication." d) "I may experience increased frequency of urination while on this medication." 4. The nurse is caring for a client with a history of heart failure. Which assessment finding would indicate a worsening of the client's condition? a) Decreased heart rate b) Decreased respiratory rate c) Increased urine output d) Increased lower extremity edema 5. A client is receiving intravenous heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor closely to evaluate the effectiveness and safety of the medication? a) Prothrombin time (PT) b) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) c) International normalized ratio (INR) d) Platelet count Answers: 1. c) Administer oxygen therapy. 2. d) "I should administer this medication at the same time each day." 3. a) "I should take this medication in the morning to prevent nighttime urination." 4. d) Increased lower extremity edema 5. b) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

1. Which of the following structures is responsible for maintaining balance and equilibrium in the body? a) Cochlea b) Semicircular canals c) Retina d) Olfactory bulb 2. Which of the following hormones is responsible for the regulation of water balance and blood pressure? a) Thyroid hormone b) Growth hormone c) Aldosterone d) Epinephrine 3. Which of the following is responsible for the production of antibodies and plays a vital role in the immune response? a) Thymus gland b) Adrenal gland c) Spleen d) Pituitary gland 4. The condition characterized by an abnormal increase in body temperature often resulting from prolonged exposure to high environmental temperatures is called: a) Hypothermia b) Hyperthermia c) Hypoglycemia d) Hyperglycemia 5. Which of the following is the correct order of blood flow through the heart? a) Right atrium, right ventricle, left atrium, left ventricle b) Left atrium, left ventricle, right atrium, right ventricle c) Right atrium, left atrium, right ventricle, left ventricle d) Left atrium, right atrium, left ventricle, right ventricle 6. The hormone responsible for stimulating uterine contractions during childbirth is: a) Oxytocin b) Estrogen c) Progesterone d) Prolactin 7. Which of the following is responsible for the production of insulin-like growth factors (IGFs) that promote growth and development? a) Adrenal glands b) Thyroid gland c) Pituitary gland d) Pancreas 8. The part of the neuron that receives signals from other neurons is called the: a) Cell body b) Axon c) Dendrite d) Myelin sheath 9. The primary site of nutrient absorption in the digestive system is the: a) Stomach b) Small intestine c) Large intestine d) Esophagus 10. Which of the following is responsible for the production of urine in the kidneys? a) Glomerulus b) Renal pelvis c) Nephron d) Ureter Answers: 1. b) Semicircular canals 2. c) Aldosterone 3. c) Spleen 4. b) Hyperthermia 5. a) Right atrium, right ventricle, left atrium, left ventricle 6. a) Oxytocin 7. c) Pituitary gland 8. c) Dendrite 9. b) Small intestine 10. c) Nephron

1. Which of the following hormones is produced by the pineal gland and helps regulate sleep-wake cycles? a) Melatonin b) Insulin c) Estrogen d) Adrenaline 2. The neurotransmitter responsible for muscle contraction is: a) Dopamine b) Serotonin c) Acetylcholine d) GABA 3. Which of the following is not a part of the upper respiratory tract? a) Pharynx b) Larynx c) Trachea d) Bronchi 4. Which of the following is responsible for the production of red blood cells? a) Spleen b) Liver c) Kidneys d) Bone marrow 5. The hormone responsible for the regulation of calcium levels in the blood is: a) Thyroxine b) Calcitonin c) Cortisol d) Insulin 6. Which of the following is not a component of the female reproductive system? a) Uterus b) Ovary c) Vas deferens d) Fallopian tube 7. The smallest unit of a muscle that can contract is called a: a) Sarcomere b) Myofibril c) Myofilament d) Myocyte 8. Which of the following is not a type of connective tissue? a) Bone tissue b) Blood tissue c) Nerve tissue d) Cartilage tissue 9. Which of the following is responsible for the release of insulin and glucagon? a) Adrenal glands b) Thyroid gland c) Pituitary gland d) Pancreas 10. The process by which sound waves are converted into electrical signals that can be interpreted by the brain is known as: a) Olfaction b) Gustation c) Audition d) Vision Answers: 1. a) Melatonin 2. c) Acetylcholine 3. d) Bronchi 4. d) Bone marrow 5. b) Calcitonin 6. c) Vas deferens 7. a) Sarcomere 8. c) Nerve tissue 9. d) Pancreas 10. c) Audition

Here are some multiple-choice questions (MCQs) related to anatomy and physiology: 1. Which of the following is responsible for pumping blood throughout the body? a) Lungs b) Heart c) Liver d) Kidneys 2. Which of the following is not part of the axial skeleton? a) Skull b) Spine c) Pelvis d) Ribs 3. Which organ is primarily responsible for the filtration of blood and production of urine? a) Liver b) Spleen c) Kidneys d) Bladder 4. Which of the following is a function of the respiratory system? a) Regulation of body temperature b) Transportation of oxygen c) Production of urine d) Digestion of food 5. Which of the following is not a type of muscle tissue? a) Skeletal muscle b) Cardiac muscle c) Smooth muscle d) Adipose tissue 6. The hormone insulin is produced by which organ? a) Pancreas b) Liver c) Kidneys d) Thyroid gland 7. Which of the following is responsible for carrying oxygen in the bloodstream? a) Red blood cells b) White blood cells c) Platelets d) Plasma 8. Which of the following is not a primary taste sensation? a) Sweet b) Sour c) Bitter d) Salty 9. The central nervous system consists of which of the following? a) Brain and spinal cord b) Nerves and ganglia c) Cranial nerves and spinal nerves d) Autonomic and somatic nervous system 10. Which of the following is not a function of the skin? a) Protection b) Temperature regulation c) Production of red blood cells d) Sensation Answers: 1. b) Heart 2. c) Pelvis 3. c) Kidneys 4. b) Transportation of oxygen 5. d) Adipose tissue 6. a) Pancreas 7. a) Red blood cells 8. d) Salty 9. a) Brain and spinal cord 10. c) Production of red blood cells

DRUGS OF CHOICE :- 1. Paracetamol poisoning- :- -N- acetyl cysteine 2. acute bronchial- asthma :- salbutamol 3. acute gout :- NSAIDS 4. acute hyperkalemia:- calcium gluconate 5. severe DIGITALIS toxicity :-DIGIBIND 6. acute migraine :- sumatriptan 7. cheese reaction :- phentolamine 8. atropine poisoning :- physostigmine 9. cyanide poisoning :- amyl nitrite 10. benzodiazepine poisoning:- flumazenil 11. cholera :- tetracycline 12. KALA-AZAR :- lipozomal amphotericin- B 13. iron poisoning :- desferrioxamine 14. MRSA :- vancomycin 15. VRSA :- LINEZOLID 16. warfarin overdose :- vitamin-K (NIPER- 2009) 17. OCD :- fluoxetine 18. alcohol poisoning :- fomepizole 19. epilepsy in pregnency :- phenobarbitone 20. anaphylactic shock :- Adrenaline 21. MRSA Infection:-Vancomycin 22. Malaria in Pregnancy:-Chloroquine 23. Whooping Cough or Perteusis:- Erythromycin 24. Kawasaki disease:-IV Ig 25. Warferin Overdose:-Vit-K 26. Heparin Overdose:-Protamine 27. Hairy Cell Leukemia:-Cladirabine 28. Multiple Myeloma:- Melphalan 29. CML:-Imatinib 30. Wegner's granulomatosis:-Cyclophosphamide 31. HOCM:- Propranolol 32. Delirium Tremens:-Diazepam 33. Drug Induced Parkinsonism:-Benzhexol 34. Diacumarol Poisoning:-Vit-K 35. Type-1 Lepra Reaction:-Steroids 36. Type- 2 Lepra Reaction:- Steroids 37. Allergic Contect Dermatitis:-Steroids 38. PSVT:- 1st-Adenosine, 2nd-Verapamil, 3rd-Digoxin 39. Z-E Syndrome:- Proton Pump Inhibitor 40. Chancroid:-Cotrimoxazole 41. Dermatitis Herpetiformis:-Dapsone 42. Spastic Type of Cerebral Palsy:-Diazepam 43. Herpis Simplex Keratitis:-Trifluridine 44. Herpes Simplex Orolabialis:-Pancyclovir 45. Neonatal Herpes Simplex:-Acyclovir 46. Pneumocystis carinii Pneumonia:-Cotrimoxazole For Nodulo 47.  Cystic Acne:-Retinoic acid 48. Trigeminal Neuralgia:-Carbamezapine 49. Actinomycosis:-Penicillin 50. Plague:- Streptomycin 51. Opioid Withdrawal:- Methadone 2nd-Clonidine 52. Alcohol Withdrawal:- Chlordiazepoxide 2nd-Diazepam 53. Post Herpetic Neuralgia:- Fluphenazine 54. WEST Syndrome:-ACTH 55. Diabetic Diarrhoea:- Clonidine 56. Lithium Induced Neuropathy:-Amiloride Communicable Disease: 57. Tetanus: PEN G Na; TETRACYCLINE 58. Diphteria: PEN G K; ERYTHROMYCIN 59. Pertusis: ERYTHROMYCIN; AMPICILLIN 60. Meningitis: MANNITOL (osmotic diuretic);DEXAMETHASONE (anti-inflammatory); DILANTIN/PHENYTOIN (anti-convulsive); PYRETINOL/ENCEPHABO L (CNS stimulant) 61. Cholera: TETRACYCLINE 62. Amoebic Dysentery: METRONIDAZOLE 63. Shigellosis: CO-TRIMOXAZOLE 64. Typhoid: Ceftrioxone ( i.v.)/ Azithromycin ( oral ) 65. Rabies: LYSSAVAC, VERORAB Immunoglobulins: ERIG or HRIg 67. Malaria: CHLOROQUINE 68. Schistosomiasis: PRAZIQUANTEL 69. Filariasis: DIETHYLCARBAMAZINE CITRATE 70. Scabies: Permethrine / Ivermectin ( oral) 71. Chicken pox: ACYCLOVIR/Vancyclovir 72. Leptospirosis: PENICILLIN; TETRACYCLINE;ERYTHROMYCIN 73. Leprosy: DAPSONE, RIFAMPICIN 74. Anthrax: PENICILLIN 75. Tuberculosis: R.I.P.E.S. 76. Pneumonia: COTRIMOXAZOLE; ProcainePenicillin 77. Helminths: MEBENDAZOLE 78. Meningitis: MANNITOL (dec. ICP) ;DEXAMETHASONE ( relieve cerebral edema) ;DIAZEPAM ( anticonvulsant); PENICILLIN 79. Syphilis: PENICILLIN 80. Gonorrhea: PENICILLIN @Bscnursing

Pediatric nursing: a) Which immunization is given to infants at birth to protect against hepatitis B? A) DTaP B) MMR C) HepB D) Varicella Answer: C) HepB b) Which of the following is a developmental milestone typically achieved by a 6-month-old infant? A) Crawling B) Standing without support C) Rolling over D) Speaking in complete sentences Answer: C) Rolling over Obstetric and gynecologic nursing: a) What is the normal range for fetal heart rate? A) 90-120 beats per minute B) 120-160 beats per minute C) 160-180 beats per minute D) 180-200 beats per minute Answer: B) 120-160 beats per minute b) Which of the following birth control methods is the most effective at preventing pregnancy? A) Condoms B) Birth control pills C) Intrauterine device (IUD) D) Withdrawal method Answer: C) Intrauterine device (IUD) Critical care nursing: a) What is the recommended position for a patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)? A) Supine position B) Prone position C) Lateral position D) Trendelenburg position Answer: B) Prone position b) What is the most common cause of cardiac arrest in adults? A) Respiratory failure B) Ventricular fibrillation C) Hypovolemia D) Pulmonary embolism Answer: B) Ventricular fibrillation Psychiatric and mental health nursing: a) Which neurotransmitter is often associated with depression? A) Serotonin B) Dopamine C) Norepinephrine D) Acetylcholine Answer: A) Serotonin b) What is the recommended first-line treatment for mild to moderate anxiety disorders? A) Benzodiazepines B) Antidepressants C) Antipsychotics D) Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) Answer: D) Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) Geriatric nursing: a) Which medication class is commonly associated with falls in older adults? A) Antidepressants B) Antipsychotics C) Diuretics D) Benzodiazepines Answer: D) Benzodiazepines b) Which of the following is a common complication of immobility in older adults? A) Pressure ulcers B) Osteoporosis C) Depression D) Anemia Answer: A) Pressure ulcers Community health nursing: a) Which of the following is an example of secondary prevention? A) Immunization B) Health education C) Screening D) Counseling Answer: C) Screening b) Which of the following is an example of a modifiable risk factor for heart disease? A) Age B) Gender C) Family history D) High blood pressure Answer: D) High blood pressure Emergency nursing: a) Which of the following is a common symptom of a stroke? A) Chest pain B) Shortness of breath C) Weakness on one side of the body D) Abdominal pain Answer: C) Weakness on one side of