قناه المرحله الرابعة ـ تحليلات#مسائي
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1/ Symptoms of eczema and contact dermatitis include:
a. Redness of skin.
b. Itching.
c. Oozing and scarring.
d. Swelling.
e. All the above
2/ All the followings are endogenous type of dermatitis or
eczema EXCEPT:
a. Dermatophytid dermatitis.
b. Discoid dermatitis.
c. Exudative discoid and lichenoid dermatitis
d. Pityriasis alba.
e. Hand eczema and pompholyx.
3/All the following types of dermatitis are exogenous
EXCEPT :
a. Irritant contact dermatitis.
b. Atopic dermatitis.
c. Post-traumatic dermatitis.
d. Infective dermatitis.
e. Photosensitive dermatitis.
6/ ACD is one type of
a. Endogenous dermatitis
b. Exogenous dermatitis
c. Common dermatitis
d. Drug induced dermatitis
e. No one is correct.
7/ All the following of Atopic dermatitis are True, EXCEPT
a. Endogenous eczema
b. IgE-mediated hypersensitivity.
c. Patch test is a method used for diagnosis.
d. Role of the environment like airborne, formaldehyde,
and harsh detergents.
e. None of these
12 / It has been postulated that the cause of asthma, eczema
and other allergic diseases is:
a. Pathogen free hypothesis.
b. Hygiene hypothesis.
c. Gene mutation hypothesis.
d. Allergen free hypothesis.
e. Non-allergic hypothesis.
13/ Dermatitis is a group of skin conditions that includes:
a. Atopic dermatitis.
b. Allergic contact dermatitis.
c. Irritant contact dermatitis.
d. Stasis dermatitis.
e. All the above
14/ What role does the imbalance of Th2 to Th1 cytokines play
in the development of atopic dermatitis?
a. It promotes IgE mediated hypersensitivity.
b. It promotes Th1 cell mediated immune responses.
c. It promotes Th2 cell mediated immune responses.
d. It does not play a role in the development of atopic
dermatitis
e. none of the above
15/ What are some chemicals that can impact the development
of atopic dermatitis?
a. Water and oxygen.
b. Alcohol and caffeine.
c. Airborne formaldehyde, harsh detergents, fragrances, and
preservatives.
d. Carbon dioxide and nitrogen.
e. a and b
16/ Which type of test is used for the diagnosis of allergic
contact dermatitis?
a. Blood test.
b. Skin prick test.
c. Patch test.
d. Sputum test
e. Biopsy
17/ What is an atopy patch test used for?
a. To diagnose food allergies.
b. To diagnose allergic rhinitis.
c. To diagnose atopic dermatitis.
d. To diagnose psoriasis.
e. To diagnose non-allergic bronchitis
21/ One of the following tests is not widely used because of
high incidence of false positive:
a. Prick test.
b. Patch test.
c. RIST
d. Intradermal allergy skin test
e. RAST
1/All the following factors play a role in developing type 1
hypersensitivity EXCEPT:
a. IgE antibodies.
b. Mast cells.
c. T helper cells
d. Allergen
e. Neutrophil
2/ Wheat allergy involves ...............and ……………
a. NK & IgE
b. Mast cell &IgA
c. NK & IgG
d. Mast cell & IgE
e. NK & IgM
3/ The test used to measure the allergen-specific IgE in blood is
called:
a. Skin prick test.
b. RAST
c. RIST
d. Intradermal allergy skin test
e. Patch test
4/ Type 1 hypersensitivity is mediated by the immunoglobulin:
a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgE
d. IgA
e. IgD
5/ The types of Hypersensitivity Reactions are the following
Except:
a. IgA mediated Hypersensitivity
b. Cytotoxic Hypersensitivity
c. Drug induce hypersensitivity
d. Immune Complex Hypersensitivity
e. Cell mediated
6/ In hypersensitivity RAST is used to determine
a- IgG
b- Specific IgE
c- IgA
d- Total IgE
e- Specific IgM
7/ The types of allergic skin test were composed of the
following except
a- Skin prick test
b- Intradermal skin test
c- Patch test
d- Oral food challenge test
e- IgE indicator tests
8/ Histamine and its receptor result in:
a. contraction of smooth muscles of the airway and GI tract.
b. Increased vaso permeability and vasodilation.
c. Enhanced mucus production.
d. All the above
e. Only A is true
9/ To Detect Hypersensitivity case the followings are follow:
a. In vivo skin & prick test
b. Estimation of total IgM
c. Histamine and tryptase detection
d. The MELISA® test
e. All are true Except B
10/ Which of the following laboratory tests can help diagnose
anaphylaxis or mast cell activation?
a. Allergen-specific IgE blood testing.
b. Skin prick or scratch tests.
c. Histamine and/or tryptase blood tests.
d. MELISA test.
e. Provocation test.
11/ Oral food challenges are considered the "gold standard"
for diagnosing:
a. Food allergies.
b. Bacterial allergies.
c. Viral allergies.
d. Fungal allergies.
e. Dust allergies.
12/ Re-exposure to the antigen can then result in the antigen
binding to and cross-linking the bound IgE antibodies on the
mast cells and basophils. This causes:
a. The release and formation of c-reactive proteins from these
cells.
b. The release and formation of chemical mediators from these
cells.
c. The release and formation of complement.
d. The release and formation of enzymes from these cells.
e. The release and formation of cytokines from these cells.
13/ Which of the following types of hypersensitivity is not
mediated by antibody reaction:
a. Type I.
b. Type II.
c. Type III.
d. Type IV.
e. None of the above.
14/Which method of testing is considered the "gold standard"
for diagnosing food allergies?
a. Skin pricks tests.
b. Intradermal allergy skin tests.
c. Oral food challenges.
d. Food elimination
e. Patch test
15/ Which of the following statements is true about total IgE
testing
a. It is the gold standard for diagnosing food allergies.
b. It identifies specific allergens causing an allergic reaction.
c. It detects the total amount of IgE protein, including allergy
antibodies.
d. It is not used to look for an ongoing allergic process.
e. None of the above.
16/ One of the following diseases is not mediated by type IV
hypersensitivity:
a. SLE.
b. Contact dermatitis.
c. Tuberculin reaction.
d. Multiple sclerosis.
e. None of the above.
17/ Cells are destroyed by cell bound antibody by one of the
following types of hypersensitivity:
a. Type I.
b. Type II.
c. Type III.
d. Type IV.
e. None of the above.
18/ One of the following types of hypersensitivity is mediated
by circulating immune complexes:
a. Type I.
b. Type II.
c. Type III.
d. Type IV.
e. None of the above.
19/ In type I hypersensitivity, a protein is called a major basic
protein is released by:
a. Neutrophil
b. Basophil
c. Eosinophil
d. Monocyte
e. Lymphocyte
20/ ……….. play a role in storing the preformed protease.
a. Histamine
b. Major basic protein
c. Leukotrienes
d. Prostaglandins
e. Heparin
1/ The main cause of non-allergic bronchitis is:
a. Genetic.
b. Environmental allergens.
c. Viral or bacterial.
d. Fungal.
e. Chemical irritants.
2/ One of the following tests is to distinguish bacterial from
nonbacterial cause of non-allergic bronchitis:
a. Spirometry.
b. Peak expiratory flow.
c. CBC and differential cell count.
d. Procalcitonin levels.
e. Sputum examination
3/ Diagnosis of non-allergic bronchitis depends on:
a. Chest radiography.
b. Bronchoscopy.
c. Influenza tests
d. Laryngoscopy.
e. All the above
4/ The main clinical symptoms of non-Allergic bronchitis are
the followings EXCEPT:
a. Coughing with or without mucus
b. A runny nose
c. A sore throat
d. Sneezing
e. Itchy eyes with congestion
5/ Which of the following is not essential method for diagnosis
of Non-Allergic Bronchitis:
a. Spirometry
b. CBC
c. Sputum Cytology
d. Chest X-ray
e. Blood culture
1/ The most effective cytokine in the pathogenesis of eosinophilic
pneumonia is:
a. Interferon gamma.
b. IL-33.
c. IL-6.
d. TNF-alpha.
e. IL-1
2/ Löffler syndrome is a type of respiratory disease called:
a. Drug induced pulmonary diseases.
b. Allergic rhinitis disease.
c. Eosinophilic pneumonia.
d. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
e. Industrial bronchitis
3/ The cause of Eosinophilic Pneumonia is:
a- Smoking
b- Parasitic infection
c- Allergic conditions
d- All are correct
e- No one correct
4/ IL-33 stimulate T-cells to released allergic eosinophilic
cytokine such as:
a- IL-8
b- IL-4
c- IL-5
d- VEGF
e- IL-18
.
5/ Occupational lung diseases can be caused by fungus like:
a. Histoplasmosis.
b. Coccidioidomycosis.
c. Candidiasis.
d. Aspergillosis
e. a + b
6/ All the followings are occupational lung diseases EXCEPT:
a. COPD.
b. Type 1 DM.
c. Mesothelioma.
d. Pneumoconiosis
e. Eosinophilic Pneumonia .
7/ One of the following parasites is involved in the Loeffler’s
syndrome:
a. Schistosoma.
b. Entamoeba histolytica.
c. Ascaris lumbricoides.
d. Enterobius vermicularis.
e. Ancylostoma.
8/ Löffler syndrome is:
a. A form of eosinophilic pneumonia
b. Parasitic infection mediated lung disease.
c. Drug induced pneumonia
d. Resolve within one week
e. Only (a + b) are true
9/ Which organism is usually responsible for Eosinophilic
pneumonia?
a. Candida albicans
b. Aspergillosis
c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
d. Staphylococcus aureus
e. Mycoplasma spp.
10/ Diagnosis of Eosinophilic Pneumonia depends on:
a. ANCA Antibody detection
b. Sialometry & Schirmer’s Test
c. Lung Function Test.
d. Blood & Broncho lavage Eosinophilia count
e. (c+d) are True
11/ Types of occupational lung disease include all the
followings EXCEPT:
a. Asthma.
b. Bronchiolitis obliterans.
c. COPD.
d. Hypersensitivity pneumonitis.
e. All the above
12/ Valley fever is one of the occupational diseases, the other
name of it is:
a. Interstitial infiltration.
b. Histoplasmosis
c. Silicosis.
d. Coccidioidomycosis.
e. Work-related asthma
13/ Loffler syndrome is :
a. Idiopathic disorder characterized by an abnormal and
marked accumulation of eosinophils in the interstitium
and alveolar spaces of the lung causing inflammation and
damage .
b. Lung disease brought on by a bad reaction to a medicine.
c. This type Worsens quickly as your blood oxygen level
falls .
d. Simple pulmonary eosinophilia. This form of eosinophilic
pneumonia may cause no symptoms or only mild
symptoms such as a dry cough .
e. Inflammation of the lung interstitium, such as the alveolar
septa.
14/. What are the types of eosinophilic pneumonia
A. Acute eosinophilic pneumonia
B. chronic eosinophilic pneumonia
C. simple pulmonary eosinophilic
D. all of the above
E. not of the above
1/ In asthma, most allergens are air born including the followings
EXCEPT:
a. Pollen.
b. Food ingested materials.
c. Dust mites.
d. Mold spores.
e. Cockroach particles.
2/ All are the types of Asthma EXCEPT:
a- Allergic
b- Seasonal
c- Exercise induced
d- Childhood
e- Drug induced .
3/ Asthma is probably due to an interaction between:
a. Genetic factor.
b. Environmental allergen.
c. Environmental triggers.
d. All the above.
e. Only a and b.
4/ In the pathogenesis of asthma, all the followings are late
allergic response EXCEPT:
a. Histamine.
b. Hyperresponsiveness.
c. Cytokines.
d. Eosinophils.
e. Basic proteins.
5/ All the followings are lung function tests used for the
diagnosis of asthma EXCEPT:
a. Spirometry.
b. FeNO test.
c. Bronchial provocation test.
d. Diffusion capacity.
e. Pathergy test.
6/ Which of the followings is not an Asthma trigger:
a. Medication
b. Cold air
c. Hot air exposure
d. Physical Activity
e. Respiratory infections
7/ Early asthmatic response is characterized by the following
feature:
a. Airway inflammation
b. Increased vascular permeability
c. Mucus secretion
d. Bronchospasm
e. All the above
8/ In late asthmatic response the most important role
is played by:
a. B cells
b. T cells
c. Macrophages
d. Basophils
e. Epithelial cells
9/ All the following cells may play a role in asthma EXCEPT:
a. T cells
b. Mast cells
c. Eosinophils
d. Kupffer cells
e. Macrophages
10/ One of the followings is FALSE diagnostic method for
Asthma:
a. Lung Function Test
b. GUE
c. CBC for Eosinophilia
d. Total & Specific IgE Detection
e. Allergic skin Tes
11/ Which Pulmonary Dz characterized by difficulty in
breathing, wheezing, coughing, Chest tightening, shortness
and rapid breathing:
a. COPD
b. Eosinophilic pneumonia
c. Asthma
d. Allergic Rhinitis
e. All are false
12/ What causes an asthma attack?
a. Allergens or the flu.
b. Smoke.
c. Exercise.
d. Drugs.
e. All of the above.
13/ Early asthmatic response is characterized by the following
feature:
a. Airway inflammation
b. Increased vascular permeability
c. Mucus secretion
d. Bronchospasm
e. All the above
14. Type of asthma include
A. allergic asthma
B. non allergic asthma
C. seasonal asthma
D. All of them
15/ The cytokine has a role in releasing of IgE in Asthma is:
a- IL-9
b- IL-4
c- IL-5
d- IL-6
e- INF gama
16/ All the following immune factors are playing a role in
asthma EXCEPT:
a. IL-5
b. Eosinophil
c. TNF
d. TH2
e. Mast cell
17/ All the followings about asthma are false EXCEPT:
a. A chronic disease
b. An acute disease
c. It effects the bronchial airway
d. It effects the lung airways.
e. Only a and c
1/ Drug induced pulmonary diseases (DIPD) is the:
a. Chemotherapy agents as bleomycin, cyclophosphamide
b. Antibiotics as nitrofurantoin
c. Heart medications as amiodarone
d. Street drugs as marijuana, and codeine
e. All the above
2/ The most common manifestation in drug induced
respiratory diseases is:
a. Interstitial pneumonitis.
b. Alveolitis.
c. Vasculitis.
d. Pneumonia.
e. Pleuritis.
3/ Which type of the following drugs induced pulmonary
disease is FALSE:
a. Allergic reactions.
b. Renal Failure.
c. Alveolar hemorrhage.
d. Bronchitis,
e. Lung failure.
4/ Which drug induced lung
disease?
a. Methotrexate
b. Ampicillin
c. Nitrofurantoind
d. None of the above
e. Only (a+c) are true
5/ What is the cause of drug-induced pulmonary disease?
a. A bad reaction to a medicine
b. Exposure to air pollution
c. Infection
d. Genetic factors
e. None of the above
6/ The most affected tissue in the drug induced
pulmonary diseases is:
a. The interstitial tissue.
b. The endothelial tissues.
c. The bronchial tissue.
d. The alveolar tissues.
e. None of the above.
7/ Pulmonary arterial hypertension is defined as a:
a. Mean pulmonary arterial pressure greater than 25 mm Hg
at rest or greater than 30 mm Hg during exercise.
b. Mean pulmonary arterial pressure greater than 20 mm Hg
at rest or greater than 25 mm Hg during exercise .
c. Mean pulmonary arterial pressure greater than 30 mm Hg
at rest or greater than 35 mm Hg during exercise .
d. Mean pulmonary arterial pressure greater than 40 mm Hg
at rest or greater than 50 mm Hg during exercise .
e. Mean pulmonary arterial pressure greater than 50 mm Hg
at rest or greater than 60 mm Hg during exercise .
