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Case-based MCQ

Case-based MCQ

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Enhance Your Medical Expertise with Case Based MCQ – Your Go-To Telegram Channel for Challenging, Real-World MCQs and Continuous Learning. Admin: @Mohamm_ADs

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📈 Analytical overview of Telegram channel Case-based MCQ

Channel Case-based MCQ (@casebasedmcq) in the English language segment is an active participant. Currently, the community unites 18 378 subscribers, ranking 1 323 in the Medicine category and 21 736 in the India region.

📊 Audience metrics and dynamics

Since its creation on невідомо, the project has demonstrated rapid growth, gathering an audience of 18 378 subscribers.

According to the latest data from 12 November, 2026, the channel demonstrates stable activity. Although there has been a change in the number of participants by -190 over the last 30 days and by -3 over the last 24 hours, overall reach remains high.

  • Verification status: Not verified
  • Engagement rate (ER): The average audience engagement rate is 1.44%. Within the first 24 hours after publication, content typically collects 0.67% reactions from the total number of subscribers.
  • Post reach: On average, each post receives 265 views. Within the first day, a publication typically gains 124 views.
  • Reactions and interaction: The audience actively supports content: the average number of reactions per post is 1.
  • Thematic interests: Content is focused on key topics such as boardvital, bmj, journal, usmle, drug.

📝 Description and content policy

The author describes the resource as a platform for expressing subjective opinions:
“Enhance Your Medical Expertise with Case Based MCQ – Your Go-To Telegram Channel for Challenging, Real-World MCQs and Continuous Learning. Admin: @Mohamm_ADs”

Thanks to the high frequency of updates (latest data received on 13 November, 2026), the channel maintains relevance and a high level of publication reach. Analytics show that the audience actively interacts with content, making it an important point of influence in the Medicine category.

18 378
Subscribers
-324 hours
-397 days
-19030 days
Posts Archive
Which one of the following could be the most likely diagnosis?
Anonymous voting

⏳ Case-based MCQ | #Case_391 〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰 A 4-year-old is boy is brought to your attention with complaints of intermittent abdominal pain. Each episode lasted for a maximum of 2 to 3 hours before it completely subsided. He has been quite asymptomatic in between the episodes. This time, however, the pain has lasted for 12 hours. On examination, he is afebrile but a mass is palpated in the right upper quadrant (RUQ). The mass is not tender.

⏳ Case-based MCQ | #Case_390 | #answer 〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰 ✅ B 🔎 Explanation The first point that should be noted is the arterial pressure of the oxygen that is above 100 mmHg. There are only two scenarios for an elevated Pa02 above 100 mmHg: 1. Hyperventilation of high concentration oxygen 2. Sampling errors - if there is an air bubble in the blood sample, the Pa02 will be falsely elevated to a level approximate to the oxygen pressure of the room air (almost 140 mmHg) while the PaC02 is falsely decreased. In this patient, sampling error is the cause of the ABG reading because if the cause was hyperventilation of oxygen the PaC02 was expected to be normal or even decreased. In fact, despite the oxygen level on ABG, he is still hypoxic due to suppressed respiratory drive; therefore, the next best step in management would be giving the patient more naloxone to counteract the suppressive effect of opiate on respiratory drive and achieving a respiratory rate of 12 breaths per minute or higher. In the meanwhile the patient should be ventilated with bag and mask attached to the oxygen. If reversal of normal breathing with maximum dose of naloxone is not achieved, other diagnoses should be considered. Intubation and ventilation must be considered if the patient cannot maintain his/her airway patent or treatment with naloxone fails to raise the respiratory rate of the patient. 🔖 NOTE - in approaching to a patient with opiate overdose, the first priority is ensuring airway patency with securing an airway, suction of oropharyngeal secretions and supplemental oxygen, and establishing an intravenous line. The next urgent step is always intravenous naloxone. The patient should receive assisted ventilation with bag and mask attached to 100% oxygen until the target respiratory rate is reached (s12 breaths per minute). ⚠ (Option A) While this patient has hypercarbia and a respiratory rate of 6 breaths ber minute, a reduction in oxygen flow will result in deterioration of his condition. ⚠ (Option C) Repeating the ABG may be indicated after treatment with further doses of naloxone. ⚠ (Option D) Opiate level measurement is not indicated in this scenario. ⚠ (Option E) Intubation and ventilation at this point is not necessary unless indicated otherwise. If the case is opiate overdose, adequate treatment with naoloxone will treat the respiratory suppression

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Hello guys We just made a group for doctors who want to Practice in Australia 🇦🇺 We now need an admin or admins with enough
Hello guys We just made a group for doctors who want to Practice in Australia 🇦🇺 We now need an admin or admins with enough information to help us on the way to immigrate to Australia as Physician, and also how to get medical residency there. Please let us know in the group if you are ready to cooperate. t.me/practice_in_australia Share with your friends ✌

Which one of the following would be the most appropriate next step in management?
Anonymous voting

⏳ Case-based MCQ | #Case_390 | #answer 〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰 A 56-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after he was found drowsy and confused in his house by his son. According to his son, he is on paracetamol, indomethacin, metoprolol and oxycodone. On examination, he is drowsy and hardly arousable and has a pulse rate of 64 bpm, blood pressure of 90/65 mmHg, respiratory rate of 6 breaths per minute and temperature of 36.1°C. His pupils are bilaterally constricted. With the provisional diagnosis of opiate overdose, he is given naloxone 0.4 mg intravenously and a blood sample for ABG is drawn. He is started on oxygen 6 L/min by nasal prongs. The ABG result is back and is as follows: • Pa02: 120mmHg • PaC02: 65mmHg • pH: 7.31 • HC03: 26mEq

⏳ Case-based MCQ | #Case_389 | #answer 〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰 ✅ D 🔎 Explanation The clinical picture of bilateral itchy and watery eyes is consistent with either viral or allergic conjunctivitis. With erythematous eyelids, an allergic reaction would be the most likely diagnosis. Allergic conjunctivitis may be the response of a previously sensitized individual to an allergen, including but not limited to the following: • Household dust • Pollen from trees or grass • Mold spores • Animal dander • Chemical perfumes • Contact lens solutions • Certain medications (systemic or topical) This woman has used a new contact lens solution that is very likely to have caused an allergic reaction. ⚠ (Options A and E) A mucopurulent discharge will be consistent with bacterial conjunctivitis which is unlikely in this scenario. A previous history of bacterial conjunctivitis is unrelated to the current presentation. ⚠ (Option B) A lump in the upper eyelid is a finding in stye or chalazion, which have quite different presentations. ⚠ (Option C) Conjunctivitis does not affect vision. If vision is impaired, some other diagnoses other than conjunctivitis must be considered.

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🧩 Medical Mnemonics 🤓 Although the primary goal in the diagnostic evaluation of postmenopausal women with uterine bleeding is to exclude malignancy, but the most common cause is endometrial atrophy, which is a CHEAP problem. 💻 Join us in the official Instagram page: Online Medical School #obs_and_gyneacology 〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰 ©Medical Mnemonics

Which one of the following, if in history, is most consistent with the diagnosis?
Anonymous voting

⏳ Case-based MCQ | #Case_389 〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰 A 21-year-old woman presents to your office with itchy and watery eyes. Her symptoms started 2 days ago with redness of both eye, lacrimation and itching. She wears contact lenses. On examination, her upper and lower lids are erythematous bilaterally.

⏳ Case-based MCQ | #Case_388 | #answer 〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰 ✅ E 🔎 Explanation The findings of recurrent asthma exacerbations, patchy opacities and central bronchiectasis on chest X-ray and eosinophilia and elevated IgE level are suggestive of allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis. The findings of allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis are: ✔ Recurrent episodes of asthma-like attacks ✔ Migratory pulmonary opacities on chest X-ray ✔ Central atelectasis on chest X-ray ✔ Peripheral blood eosinophila ✔ Elevated IgE levels ✔ Positive skin test for aspergillus fugamitus Treatment is with oral corticosteroids. Inhaled corticosteroids are not effective. Antifungal agents may be added

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Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Anonymous voting

⏳ Case-based MCQ | #Case_388 〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰 A 55-year-old man presents to your practice with increasing wheeze and shortness of breath for the past 2 days. His past medical history includes asthma with recurrent episodes with similar symptoms treated with oral corticosteroids. His current medications are inhaled corticosteroids and salmetrol. On examination, his blood pressure is 120/80mmHg, pulse 94bpm, and respiratory rate 22 breaths per minute. His oxygen saturation is 94% on room air. Respiratory examination is remarkable for widespread wheeze. The rest of the examination is inconclusive. Blood tests shows mild eosinophila and elevated IgE level. Chest X-ray shows central bronchiectasis and patchy opacities.

⏳ Case-based MCQ | #Case_387 | #answer 〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰 ✅ C 🔎 Explanation The age of the child, history of atopy (eczema) and chronic intermittent cough favor the diagnosis of asthma. Asthma is common in this age group and is usually underdiagnosed. In atopic asthma, the child usually has the history of other atopies such as allergic rhinitis, eczema, etc. ⚠ (Option A) Epiglotitis has more pronounced and acute presentation with fever and cough, respiratory distress and drooling.The child is usually very ill. ⚠ (Option B) Chronic sinusitis may present with nocturnal cough caused by post nasal drip, but exertional cough is not usually a feature. Besides, the discharges tend to be more thick and purulent. There is also history of facial tenderness or fullness and recurrent upper respiratory infections. ⚠ (Option D) Gastro-esophageal reflux is rare in this age group. If present,it may cause chronic calf and mimic cough-variant asthma especially at night, but not exertional cough. Moreover, absence of other features such as heart burn makes this diagnosis far less unlikely. ⚠ (Option E) Whooping cough (pertussis) has a different presentation with paroxysms of cough and the terminal inspiratory whoop

Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Anonymous voting

⏳ Case-based MCQ | #Case_387 〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰 A 5-year-old child is brought to your clinic with complaint of cough. His mother explains that the coughs started 2 months ago, and sometimes wakes him up at night. He also has them when he plays with other children or runs and sometimes is associated with small amount of clear phlegm. On history, you realize that he had flexural eczema when he was 2 years old. There child is afebrile. On chest examination, no wheeze is heard. The rest of the physical exam is inconclusive.

⏳ Case-based MCQ | #Case_386 | #answer 〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰 ✅ A 🔎 Explanation It is very important to consider malaria in all febrile returning travelers to areas where malaria is endemic. Following the bite of an infected female anopheles mosquito, the inoculated sporozoites go to the liver within 1-2 hours. The bitten individual is often asymptomatic for 12 to 35 days; however, symptoms can develop as early as 7 days. The incubation period for plasmodium falaciparum is 7; however, people who have taken antimalarial drugs or have partial immunity due to frequent exposures may develop symptoms much later. The incubation period for relapsing species plasmodium ovale and plasmodium vivax is approximately 2 weeks but clinical symptoms can occur months later due to activation of hypnozoites. The incubation period for plasmodium malariae is about 18 days. This man has been in Thailand for four days and his symptoms have started one day after he has returned. Even if bitten on the first day the diagnosis cannot be malaria given the fact that the minimum reported incubation period for malaria is at least 7 days (A is correct). ⚠ (Option B) In malaria, fever is almost always a feature. The fever is usually fluctuating and is associated with rigors, chills, and sweating. ⚠ (Options C and D) In a non-immune person, the spleen can be palpable after several days of symptoms. In such patients, lack of anemia early in the clinical course is common. Given these, a normal spleen, or the lack of anemia does not exclude malaria as the diagnosis. ⚠ (Option E) Clinical malaria often starts with fever, malaise, fatigue, tachycardia, tachypnea, sweating, headache, cough, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, diarrhea, arthragia and myalgia. Mild jaundice may also be present. Fluctuating fever is almost always a feature. Since diarrhea can be a manifestation, its presence does not exclude malaria. 🔖 NOTE - In a person with malaria, laboratory findings other than anemia may include: thrombocytopenia, elevated transaminases, increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine, mild coagulopathy and hyperbilirubinemia (often indirect).