Case-based MCQ

Open in Telegram

Enhance Your Medical Expertise with Case Based MCQ – Your Go-To Telegram Channel for Challenging, Real-World MCQs and Continuous Learning. Admin: @Mohamm_ADs

India21 810 Medicine1 236...

📈 Analytical overview of Telegram channel Case-based MCQ

Channel Case-based MCQ (@casebasedmcq) in the English language segment is an active participant. Currently, the community unites 18 828 subscribers, ranking 1 236 in the Medicine category and 21 810 in the India region.

📊 Audience metrics and dynamics

Since its creation on невідомо, the project has demonstrated rapid growth, gathering an audience of 18 828 subscribers.

According to the latest data from 03 September, 2026, the channel demonstrates stable activity. Although there has been a change in the number of participants by -208 over the last 30 days and by -7 over the last 24 hours, overall reach remains high.

Verification status: Not verified
Engagement rate (ER): The average audience engagement rate is 1.53%. Within the first 24 hours after publication, content typically collects 0.62% reactions from the total number of subscribers.
Post reach: On average, each post receives 288 views. Within the first day, a publication typically gains 116 views.
Reactions and interaction: The audience actively supports content: the average number of reactions per post is 1.
Thematic interests: Content is focused on key topics such as boardvital, bmj, journal, usmle, drug.

📝 Description and content policy

The author describes the resource as a platform for expressing subjective opinions:
“Enhance Your Medical Expertise with Case Based MCQ – Your Go-To Telegram Channel for Challenging, Real-World MCQs and Continuous Learning. Admin: @Mohamm_ADs”

Thanks to the high frequency of updates (latest data received on 04 September, 2026), the channel maintains relevance and a high level of publication reach. Analytics show that the audience actively interacts with content, making it an important point of influence in the Medicine category.

18 828

Subscribers

-724 hours

-517 days

-20830 days

288

Post views

~ 11624 hours

~ 17148 hours

1.53%

Engagement rate

~ 1

Posts per day

Ads index

beta

Posts Archive

18 828

A 70-year-old woman presents to your practice with complaints of weakness and easy fatigability for the past 5 months. She is a recent immigrant from Algeria landing on Australia almost 8 months ago. She has been a vegetarian most of her adult life. Past medical history is insignificant for any chronic condition otherwise. Based on the history and physical findings, you suspect anemia and order a full blood examination (FBE) which is significant for a red cell count (RCC) of 2.9x1012/L (4.5-6.5x1012/L), hemoglobin of 90 g/L (120-160 g/L), MCV of 62 fL (80-100 fL). Which one of the following could be the most likely cause of this presentation? A. Cecal cancer. B. Thalassemia minor. C. Hookworm infestation. D. The vegetarian diet. E. Vitamin B12 deficiency.

18 828

Case-based MCQ | #MCQ_95 •••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••• Correct Answer Is A For those, whose warfarin therapy has been stopped before major surgical procedures, it is recommended that the previous maintenance dose of warfarin be resumed on the night of surgery (12-24 hours). In addition to warfarin, low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) in prophylactic dose or unfractionated heparin (UFH) with slow infusion is started at the same time. The target APTT is 1.5 times the normal. LMWH or UFH is continued for at least 5 days and is ceased 48 after the target INR is reached (≥1.8)

18 828

A 55-year-old man has been on warfarin for AF for the past 3 months. He presented with an incarcerated inguinal hernia and was booked for emergent surgery. Warfarin was stopped and fresh frozen plasma was given. Which one of the following is the time to resume warfarin therapy? A. 12 hours post-op. B. 48 hours post-op. C. Immediately after recovery from anesthesia. D. 5 days post-op. E. When INR is less than 1.8 again

18 828

Repost from Mediccount - Medical accounts

✈️Accounts Embase (1 Year Subscription) Lexicomp (Webproxy) (1 Year Subscription) Cochrane Library (1 Year Subscription) 5MinuteConsult (1 Year Subscription) OMMBID Access (1 Year Subscription) Scopus (1 Year Subsciption ) PEPID - Clinical Decision Support Account (1 Year Subscription, PC Only) NEJM Journal Watch 1-Year Subscription Account Radprimer 1-Year Subscription The Medical Letter (1-Year Subscription) 👀Contact us: @Mediccounts 💙Our Channel: @Mediccount

18 828

Repost from Mediccount - Medical accounts

2023 Hematology And Medical Oncology Board Review - MD Anderson (Videos + PDF) Cleveland Clinic Intensive Review Of Endocrinology & Metabolism 2023 (Videos) Harvard 8th Annual Board Review And Update In Pulmonary, Sleep, And Critical Care Medicine 2023 (Videos) Medstudy 2023–2024 Pediatrics Video Board Review (Videos) Board Exam Study Tool (BEST) 2023 - ASAM (Mock + Practice Exams + Flash Cards) Amboss USMLE Step 3 (Updated August 2023) (PDF) Amboss USMLE Step 2 CK (Updated August 2023) (PDF) Amboss USMLE Step 1 (Updated August 2023) (PDF) 👀Contact us: @Mediccounts 💙Our Channel: @Mediccount

18 828

Repost from Mediccount - Medical accounts

✅ New official preparatory MCCQE 🇨🇦 tests are available at Best Price 🔵MCCQE Part I-CDM Test CDM-201D 🔵MCCQE Part I-CDM Test CDM-202D 🔵MCCQE Part I-CDM Test CDM-203D 🔴MCCQE Part I-MCQ Test MCQ-101C 🔴MCCQE Part I-MCQ Test MCQ-102C 🔴MCCQE Part I-MCQ Test MCQ-103D 🔸MCCQE Part I-Prep Exam PE-301D 🟣MCCQE Part I-Prep Exam-Lite PE-LITE-401A 🟣MCCQE Part I-Prep Exam-Lite PE-LITE-402A ✅ 🔤🅰️🔤🅰️🔤🅰️ qbank ✅ 🔠🔠🔠 qbank ✅ 🔤🔤🔤🔤🔤🔤 👑 Recently Updated! 🤵Contact Admin: @Mediccounts ⭐Our channel: @Mediccount

18 828

Case-based MCQ | #MCQ_94 •••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••• Correct Answer Is B The Scenario describes a healthy child with a platelet type of bleeding. In bleeding disorders with faulty platelet or platelet-mediated coagulation, the bleeding tends to occur immediately after insult and is superficial. In patients with factor deficiency (factor type of bleeding), the bleeding is deep (e.g., into muscles and joints) and delayed, because initially, platelets will establish homeostasis. Von Willebrand disease (VWD) is an inherited disease with many different types (22 types) and clinical pictures. Almost all types cause mild bleeding problems with excellent prognosis. The most common types often have an autosomal dominant inheritance. This disease is very common (1 in 100 population) and is the most common inherited bleeding disorder. Von Willebrand factor is a circulating factor that is attached to factor VIII. This factor by gluing platelets together and to the vascular lining plays the earliest role in coagulation. Because the clinical disease can be very mild, most cases will never be diagnosed, but if symptomatic, the symptoms can include: - Easy bruising - Mucosal bleeding (e.g., epistaxis, menorrhagea, gastrointestinal bleeding, etc) - No history of haemarthroses or intramuscular hematomas (except for type 3, which is very rare but can have musculoskeletal manifestations) - Prolonged bleeding after trauma or surgery The clinical picture and a normal platelet count suggest VWD as the most likely diagnosis.

18 828

Case-based MCQ | #MCQ_94 •••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••• Joseph, 5 years old, is brought to the emergency department by his mother. About one hour ago and while running at home, he hits his face against the coffee table and gets a nose bleed. The mother tried to stop the bleeding by compressing the nose and applying ice, to no avail. On physical examination, the child looks otherwise quite healthy with no remarkable finding. A full blood exam (FBE) is inconclusive. Which one of the following could be the most likely cause of this persistent bleeding? A. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). B. Von Willebrand disease. C. Hemophilia. D. Leukemia. E. Factor V Leiden mutation.

18 828

Case-based MCQ | #MCQ_93 •••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••• Correct Answer Is E The dyspepsia manifested by bloating and belching after cholecystectomy is suggestive of post-cholecystectomy syndrome (PCS) as the most likely diagnosis. PCS affects between 10-15% of patients with cholecystectomy and is characterized by a heterogenous group of symptoms, including: Upper abdominal pain Nausea and vomiting Diarrhea Jaundice Bloating Excessive gas Dyspepsia. These symptoms can be the continuation of symptoms thought to be caused by gallbladder pathology, the development of new symptoms normally attributed to the gallbladder, or symptoms caused by removal of the gallbladder In 90% of the time an etiology can be found. The most common etiologies are: Choledocholithiasis – stones remained or formed in the common bile duct or cystic duct remnant Biliary dyskinesia Continuously increased bile flow to the GI tract Dilation of cystic duct remnant NOTE – choledocholithiasis is the most common cause of PCS. It can involve the common bile duct of the cystic duct remnant. Choledocholithiasis is classified as retained, if found within 2 years of cholecystectomy or recurrent, if the stone id found 2 years after the surgery. Recurrent stones formed as a result of the biliary stasis are often caused by strictures, papillary stenosis, and biliary dyskinesia. 🏷NOTE – Ultrasonography is the initial imaging study of choice for patients with suspected PCS. PCS is a provisional diagnosis, and the presentation should be renamed after a specific cause as an explanation for the symptoms is clinched.

18 828

Case-based MCQ | #MCQ_93 •••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••• Sarah, 48 years of age, underwent cholecystectomy 6 weeks ago for frequent episodes of biliary colic caused by gallstones. An intra-operative cholangiogram was clear with no left stones evident at that time. Today, she has presented because after being symptom-free for one week after the operation, she has started to have bloating and belching again. Which one of the following best explains her symptoms? A. Pancreatitis. B. Cystic duct stump syndrome. C. Stone left in the common bile duct. D. Symptoms are not related to gallstones. E. Post-cholecystectomy syndrome

18 828

Case-based MCQ | #MCQ_92 •••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••• Correct Answer Is C The lump can be a segment of a small bowel loop entrapped in the inguinal region, namely inguinal hernia. Absent cough impulse is a pointer towards incarceration of the hernia. There are two points in the question. The first and most important one is the presence of constipation and abdominal distention consistent with bowel obstruction. The second point is the presence of an inguinal lump with no cough impulse, no pain, and no tenderness. The history and physical findings make small bowel obstruction (SBO) the most likely diagnosis and the first condition to exclude. The initial imaging of choice in assessment of suspected bowel obstruction is plain X-rays films. At least two views are required: upright view and supine view. Plain abdominal films can confirm the diagnosis in most patients without the need for further diagnostic testing, but they can be equivocal in 20-30% of patients, or normal or misleading in 10-20%. Abdominal X-rays are always the first imaging step in diagnosis.

18 828

A 57-year-old man presents with constipation and abdominal distention for the past three days. On examination, a lump is noted in the left inguinal region. The lump has no cough impulse and is not tender or painful. Which one of the following is the best next investigation to consider in this patient? A. Ultrasound of the lump. B. Ultrasound of the abdomen. C. Erect and supine x-ray films of the abdomen. D. CT scan of the abdomen. E. Biopsy

18 828

Case-based MCQ | #MCQ_91 •••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••• Correct Answer Is E Although giardiasis, viral gastroenteritis and celiac disease can all present with diarrhea and abdominal pain, no rectal tenderness is elicited on rectal exam. Urinary tract infection is not associated with tenderness on rectal exam either. Of the given options, the only one that can justify the clinical presentation is acute pelvic appendicitis. Clinical features of pelvic appendicitis are: - Absence of abdominal wall rigidity and tenderness - Tenderness in the rectovesical pouch and/or pouch of Douglas on rectal examination - Right-sided spasm of psoas muscle - Diarrhea due to irritation of the rectum by the inflamed appendix - Increased frequency of urination caused by irritation of bladder due to an inflamed appendix - Hypogastric pain brought on by internal rotation of a flexed hip due to contact of the inflamed appendix with the obturator internus muscle

18 828

Repost from Medical Mnemonics

- Do you want to publish your paper in the High Impact journal? - Would you like your work to be seen in the best journals? 🔷 We will proceed with the journal publishing process with our professional team on MCU RESEARCH COLLABORATION 🔻 Feel Free to contact admin 👉 @Mohamm_ADs

18 828

Repost from Mediccount - Medical accounts

18 828

Case-based MCQ | #MCQ_91 •••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••• A 34-year-old woman presents to your clinic complaining of abdominal pain and diarrhea one week after she returned from a trip to Thailand. While she was on the trip, she first noticed abdominal pain in the right iliac fossa which resolved subsequently. On examination, the abdomen is non-tender and soft with no rigidity or guarding. However, digital rectal exam is tender. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Giardiasis. B. Celiac disease. C. Rotavirus infection. D. Urinary tract infection. E. Appendicitis

18 828

Case-based MCQ | #MCQ_90 •••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••• Correct Answer Is C The appearance of the rash and the history suggest herpes zoster (shingles) infection as the most likely diagnosis. Herpes zoster (shingles) is caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus (VZV). It usually occurs in adults but can be seen in children and in the first 2 years of life if there has been a history of maternal varicella. Pain is a significant complaint in patients with shingles. Tricyclic antidepressants and the anticonvulsant gabapentin are the most effective medications for pain control in neuropathic pain associated with shingles. ⚠ (Options A and B) Antiviral agents such as famciclovir, valacyclovir, or acyclovir should be used in any patient seen within 72 hours of the onset of vesicles, all patients with ophthalmic herpes zoster, and in immunocompromised patients. For pregnant women, only acyclovir (first line) or valaciclovir (second line) are used because the safety of famciclovir during pregnancy has yet to be established

18 828

A 65-year-old man presents with an exquisitely painful vesicular rash, which has been present for the past 7 days and is increasingly painful. The rash is shown in the following photograph. His past medical history is unremarkable. Physical examination is otherwise inconclusive. Which one of the following is the most appropriate immediate management? A. Oral famciclovir. B. Intravenous famciclovir. C. Oral amitriptyline. D. Intramuscular immunoglobulin. E. Oral Phenergan® (promethazine).

18 828

Case-based MCQ | #MCQ_90 •••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••• Correct Answer Is D The clinical findings such as mobility, subcutaneous location, and the consistency of the lumps make the multiple symmetrical lipomas the most likely diagnosis. Being lobulated is another important clue, as is the positive family history. Lipomas are benign tumors of mature fat cells. They are quite common and can be found in subcutaneous tissue. Although the subcutaneous fat layer is the most common site for lipomas to arise, they may be subfascial, intramuscular, or be found in many other sites. There is usually a genetic predisposition.