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Case-based MCQ

Case-based MCQ

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Enhance Your Medical Expertise with Case Based MCQ – Your Go-To Telegram Channel for Challenging, Real-World MCQs and Continuous Learning. Admin: @Mohamm_ADs

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Case-based MCQ (@casebasedmcq) Ingliz til segmentidagi kanali faol ishtirokchi. Hozirda hamjamiyat 19 245 obunachidan iborat bo'lib, Tibbiyot toifasida 1 203-o'rinni va Hindiston mintaqasida 22 726-o'rinni egallagan.

📊 Auditoriya ko‘rsatkichlari va dinamika

невідомо sanasidan buyon loyiha tez o‘sib, 19 245 obunachiga ega bo‘ldi.

18 Iyun, 2026 dagi oxirgi ma’lumotlarga ko‘ra kanal barqaror faollikka ega. Oxirgi 30 kunda obunachilar soni -193 ga, so‘nggi 24 soatda esa -3 ga o‘zgardi va umumiy qamrov yuqori darajada qolmoqda.

  • Tasdiqlash holati: Tasdiqlanmagan
  • Jalb etish (ER): Auditoriya o‘rtacha 2.25% darajada jalb etiladi. Nashrdan keyingi dastlabki 24 soatda kontent odatda umumiy obunachilar sonining 0.76% ini tashkil etuvchi reaksiyalarni to‘playdi.
  • Post qamrovi: Har bir post o‘rtacha 433 marta ko‘riladi; birinchi sutkada odatda 147 ta ko‘rish yig‘iladi.
  • Reaksiyalar va o‘zaro ta’sir: Auditoriya faol: har bir postga o‘rtacha 1 ta reaksiya keladi.
  • Tematik yo‘nalishlar: Kontent boardvital, bmj, journal, usmle, drug kabi asosiy mavzularga jamlangan.

📝 Tavsif va kontent siyosati

Muallif resursni shaxsiy fikrni ifoda etish maydoni sifatida ta’riflaydi:
Enhance Your Medical Expertise with Case Based MCQ – Your Go-To Telegram Channel for Challenging, Real-World MCQs and Continuous Learning. Admin: @Mohamm_ADs

Yuqori yangilanish chastotasi (oxirgi ma’lumot 19 Iyun, 2026 da olingan) sababli kanal doimo dolzarb va katta qamrovli bo‘lib qoladi. Analitika auditoriya kontent bilan faol hamkorlik qilishini, uni Tibbiyot toifasidagi muhim ta’sir nuqtasiga aylantirishini ko‘rsatadi.

19 245
Obunachilar
-324 soatlar
-457 kunlar
-19330 kunlar
Postlar arxiv
Which one of the following could be the most likely diagnosis?
Anonymous voting

Case-based MCQ | #Case_369 〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰 A 55-year-old woman presents to your practice after noticing a clear nipple discharge from her right breast. On physical examination, no palpable mass is found in her breasts. Both nipples appear normal, however, pressure over the right areola causes discharge of clear fluid from the nipple.

Case-based MCQ | #Case_368 | #answer 〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰 ✅ D Of the options, labyrinthitis, Meniere's disease and lateral medullary syndrome can cause acute onset vertigo, tinnitus and hearing loss. Ataxia can be a presentation in patients with cerebellar or vestibular disease. Of these three, and given the inconclusive neurological examination, labyrinthitis is the most likely diagnosis. Acute labyrinthitis presents with acute vertigo often followed by nausea and vomiting, tinnitus, and hearing loss. A history of preceding viral upper respiratory tract infection is present in up to 50% of patients. Change in head position provokes vertigo. Each episode of vertigo lasts from few seconds to minutes. ⚠ Meniere's disease (option D) also presents with episodes of acute onset vertigo, tinnitus and hearing loss. However, patients with Meniere's disease often complain of ear fullness because the pathophysiology is excess endolymph in the labyrinth. Patients are usually middle-aged women with a positive family history for the condition. Finally, Meniere's disease is much less common compared to labyrinthitis. Given these, Meniere's disease in this patient is a less likely diagnosis compared to labyrinthitis. ⚠ (Option B) Vestibular neuronitis is the inflammation of the vestibular nerve often by a viral infection. Patients usually have a preceding viral upper respiratory infection or herpes zoster. Vertigo and imbalance are the prominent features of vestibular neuronitis and there is no hearing loss or tinnitus. Loss of balance is more prominent in vestibular neuronitis compared to other causes of vertigo, and patient commonly present with vertigo and falls. Symptoms in vestibular neuronitis are aggravated by change in the position of the head. Neurological examination in patients with vestibular neuronitis is otherwise normal. ⚠ (Option C) Acoustic neuromas are intracranial tumors that arise from the Schwann cell sheath of either the vestibular or cochlear nerve. As acoustic neuromas increase in size, they eventually occupy a large portion of the cerebellopontine angle. Although 5-15% of patients with acoustic neuroma present with acute onset of unilateral hearing loss, deafness has an insidious onset in this condition, making it a less likely diagnosis. Gradual hearing loss is overwhelmingly the most common presenting symptom of patients with acoustic neuroma. Imbalance and vertigo is not a prominent feature because as the tumor growth disrupts the vestibular nerve function slowly, there is enough time for compensation. Other features that may be present in patients with acoustic neuroma are headache and facial sensory impairment. ⚠ (Option E) Lateral medullary syndrome, also known as Wallenberg syndrome or posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA) syndrome has other clinical features in addition to vertigo, hearing loss, and tinnitus. Such features include cross-body sensory impairment (sensory impairment of the face on the affected side and that of the body on the other side), Horner's syndrome, and signs and symptoms indicative of the involvement of cranial nerves or their nucleus. Such signs and symptoms may include dysphagia (due to involvement of nucleus ambiguus that supplies the vagus and glossopharyngeal nerves), dysarthria, dysphonia, disrupted temperature and pain sensation, palatal clonus and heart rate and blood pressure dysregulation (due to involvement of the vagus nerve).

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Anonymous voting

Which one of the following could be the most likely diagnosis?
Anonymous voting

Case-based MCQ | #Case_368 〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰 A 54-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with complaints of sudden onset vertigo, nausea, vomiting, and hearing loss in her left ear. On examination, her vital signs are within normal ranges. Hearing is decreased on the left side on whisper test. Rinne and Weber tests establish sensorineural deafness of the left ear. She has also nystagmus with the rapid eye to the left side. The rest of the examination is inconclusive.

Which one of the following could be the most likely diagnosis?
Anonymous voting

Case-based MCQ | #Case_368 〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰 A 54-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with complaints of sudden onset vertigo, nausea, vomiting, and hearing loss in her left ear. On examination, her vital signs are within normal ranges. Hearing is decreased on the left side on whisper test. Rinne and Weber tests establish sensorineural deafness of the left ear. She has also nystagmus with the rapid eye to the left side. The rest of the examination is inconclusive.

Case-based MCQ | #Case_367 | #answer 〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰 ✅ D With the clinical findings of frontal headache and hypotension in a pregnant woman, pituitary apoplexy should be considered as one of the most important differential diagnoses. Pituitary apoplexy is defined as sudden hemorrhage into the pituitary gland. Hemorrhage often occurs into a pituitary adenoma. The most dramatic presentation of apoplexy is the sudden onset of excruciating headache, diplopia due to pressure on the oculomotor nerve, and hypopituitarism. All pituitary hormonal deficiencies can occur, but a fall in ACTH and, consequently, cortisol is most serious because it can cause life-threatening hypotension. In a series of 35 patients with pituitary apoplexy seen at one center, 97% had headache, 71% had visual field impairment, and 66% had decreased visual acuity. Only a minority had clinical manifestations of hormonal excess or deficiency, but there was biochemical evidence of gonadotropin deficiency in 79%, ACTH deficiency in 76%, and TSH deficiency in 50%. CT scan and MRI can be used for detection of intra-pituitary hemorrhage; however, MRI is more sensitive for evaluation of the pituitary gland. Hypopituitarism and the diplopia may improve after surgical decompression of the pituitary. Both problems may also improve spontaneously as the blood is absorbed over a course of weeks to months after the hemorrhage. For hypotension, high-dose corticosteroids are the mainstay of therapy. ⚠ (Options A and B) With headache and hypotension, subarachnoid hemorrhage can be another differential diagnoses, but headache of SAH tends to be much more severe (the worst headache in life) and often associated with neck stiffness. On the other hand, skull cannot accommodate enough blood to justify the hypotension and the tachycardia in this patient. CT scan of the head (non-contrast) and LP (if CT was inconclusive) are used if SAH is suspected. ⚠ (Option C) Ultrasonography is of no use in assessment of this patient with a possible intracranial pathology. ⚠ (Option E) Preeclampsia is defined as persistent hypertension and proteinuria after 20 weeks’ gestation. FBE, LFT, and urinalysis should be considered for excluding preeclampsia. This woman with hypotension is less likely to have preeclampsia.

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Which one of the following is the investigation more likely to establish the diagnosis?
Anonymous voting

Case-based MCQ | #Case_367 〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰 An 18-week pregnat woman is brought to the Emergency Department with complaint of sudden-onset severe frontal headache. On examination, she has a blood pressure of 80/60 mmHg, pulse of 110 bpm,respiratory rate of 17 breaths per minute and temperature of 37.3°C. The rest of the examination is unremarkable. There is no neck stiffness, abdominal pain or tenderness, or uterine contractions.

Case-based MCQ | #Case_366 | #answer 〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰 ✅ B This clinical picture is suggestive of Noonan syndrome. This is an autosomal dominant disorder with mutation of chromosome 11. It has been described as the male Turner’s syndrome, but affects both sexes. Clinical features of the syndrome include the following: 🔴 Facial/eye features • Triangular face • Hypertelorism (increased distance between the eyes) • Down-slanting eyes • Ptosis • Strabismus - seen in 48% • Amblyopia - seen in 33% • Refractive errors - seen in 61% • Low-set ears with thickened helices • High nasal bridge • Short webbed neck 🔴 Chest/back features • Pectus carinatum/excavatum • Scoliosis 🔴 Cardiac features • Stenotic/dysplastic pulmonic valve is the characteristic cardiac anomaly • Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (obstructive and non-obstructive)- seen in as many as 30% • Virtually all types of congenital heart defects have been described in patients with Noonan syndrome 🔴 Abdominal features • Hepatosplenomegaly unrelated to cardiac disease - seen in 25% of the patients 🔴 Genitourinary features • Renal anomalies are present in 10% of patients but are not clinically significant • More than half of male patients have undescended testes 🔴 Skeletal features •Joint laxity is present- seen in more than 50% of the patients • Less common findings include talipes equinovarus (club foot) that is an excessively turned-in foot and high medial longitudinal arc, radioulnar synostosis (fusion), cervical spine fusion, and joint contractures. 🔴 Skin findings • Lymphedema • Prominent pads of fingers and toes - seen in 67% • Follicular keratosis of face and extensor surfaces - seen in 14% • Multiple lentigines (a lentigo is a small, sharply circumscribed, pigmented macule surrounded by normal appearing skin) - seen in 3% 🔴 Neurological findings • Hypotonia • Seizure disorders - seen in 13% • Unexplained peripheral neuropathy - not seen frequently • Mental retardation Previously, patients with Noonan syndrome were thought to have a form of Turner syndrome, as clinical picture is similar to that of Turner’s. ⚠ Myopia and ectopic ocular lens is consistent with Marfan syndrome and not are features seen in Noonan syndrome.

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Which one of the following is not consistent with this condition?
Anonymous voting

Case-based MCQ | #Case_366 〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰 A 2-year-old boy is brought to your clinic due to a 3-day history of fever with occasional cough and coryza. On clinical history, viral upper respiratory tract infection is suspected. On physical examination, the patient is noted to have down-slanting of palpebral fissures, eyes that are apart more than usual and low-set ears. The height of the patient is smaller than the standard.

Case-based MCQ | #Case_365 | #answer 〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰 ✅ B Blood-stained vaginal discharge in female children should always be taken seriously and investigated promptly. One exception is vaginal bleeding in the first week of birth in female neonates that is caused by withdrawal from maternal estrogen upon birth. Causes of vaginal bleeding in children include the following: • Vaginal foreign body • Severe vulvovaginitisTrauma (including straddle injury and sexual abuse) • Excoriation associated with threadworms • Onset of first menstruationHematuriaUrethral prolapse (an inflamed "doughnut" of tissue is visible at the urethral meatus Of the above, a vaginal foreign body is the most common cause of bloody vaginal discharge. The foreign body is often toilet t papers. Foreign body in the vagina causes offensive purulent vaginal discharge that recurs frequently despite successful initial management with antibiotic unless the foreign body is removed. It can also cause vaginal bleeding. Children with suspected vaginal foreign body should be referred to pediatrics specialist for removal of the foreign body. ⚠ (Option A) Monilial (Candida) vulvovaginitis is almost never seen in prepubertal girls except as an association with nappy rash. It cannot be the cause of such presentation in a 6-year-old girl. ⚠ (Option C) Atrophic vulvovaginitis is a less common condition in prepubertal girls and if present should raise suspicion against lichen sclerosus. Even in case of atrophic vaginitis, itching and mucoid discharge would be the expected presentation. With a blood-stained yellow discharge, atrophic vaginitis is very unlikely. ⚠ (Option D) Infection with chlamydia, gonorrhea and trichomonas can cause offensive bloody vaginal discharge. These infections in children are highly suggestive of sexual abuse. For every child with vaginal discharge associated with unusual features such as persistent and significant discharge or blood in the discharge, sexual abuse should be considered as a possibility and approached appropriately. Although sexual abuse should also be considered and thought of in such situation, the most likely cause of such presentation remains a vaginal foreign body, unless investigations establish the presence of chlamydia, gonorrhea or trichomonas, in which case sexual abuse is almost always the cause. ⚠ (Option E) Infection with threadworm may vulvovaginitis, in which case, itching is the most prominent symptom. Excoriation can cause bleeding: however, absence of itching makes this diagnosis almost unlikely.

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Which one of the following could be the most likely diagnosis?
Anonymous voting