MEDICINEnotes
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What is the most appropriate management regarding stroke prevention?
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A 64-year-old man is diagnosed with non-valvular atrial fibrillation. He has hypertension but no diabetes, heart failure, vascular disease, or previous stroke. His renal function is normal, and he has no history of bleeding.
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Q1105. A 45-year-old man presents with a 2-day history of sharp retrosternal chest pain that becomes worse during deep inspiration and when lying flat. The pain improves when he sits forward. He reports a recent history of fever, sore throat and general malaise. Examination reveals a pericardial friction rub. ECG shows widespread concave ST-segment elevation, while serial high-sensitivity troponin measurements show no significant rise or fall.
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شوفوا يا جماعة الـ LAD
ينقسم Septal و Anterior
لو لقينا الـ ECG changes في
V1 - V2 = Septal
V3 - V4 = Anterior
لو لقيناه في VV1- V4
معناها Anteroseptal STEMI ونشكوا ان LAD متصكر
معناها الجزء المتضرر من القلب هو Left ventricle مع interventricluar septum
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What is the most appropriate next step to establish the ECG diagnosis?
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Q1096. A 63-year-old woman presents with two hours of central chest pain and sweating. Her pulse is 88 beats/min and blood pressure is 132/80 mmHg. The 12-lead ECG demonstrates 3 mm horizontal ST-segment depression in leads V1–V3, with tall, broad R waves and upright T waves in V2–V3. There is no ST-segment elevation in any of the 12 standard leads. These changes raise suspicion of an acute myocardial infarction that may be poorly represented on the standard ECG.
