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*OPERATIONS MANAGEMENT* 1. Operational management involves overseeing the day-to-day operations of an organization. A. True B. False A. True 2. The objective of operational management is to ensure efficient and effective use of resources. A. True B. False Answer: A. True 3. Operational Management focuses on long-term strategic planning. A. True B. False Answer: B. False 4. Strategic planning is a key part of operational management. A. True B. False Answer: A. True 5. Quality assurance is a part of operational management. A. True B. False Answer: A. True 6. Risk management is a key aspect of operational management. A. True B. False Answer: A. True 7. Project management is a part of operational management. A. True B. False Answer: A. True 8. Financial planning is a part of operational management. A. True B. False Answer: A. True 9. Operational management focuses on short-term goals. A. True B. False Answer: B. False 10. Planning is a key aspect of operational management. A. True B. False Answer: A. True 11. Core competencies are important in operational management. A. True B. False Answer: A. True 12. Operational management involves dealing with day-to-day activities. A. True B. False Answer: A. True 13. Automation is an important part of operational management. A. True B. False Answer: A. True 14. Budgeting is not a part of operational management. A. True B. False Answer: B. False 15. Quality control is a part of operational management. A. True B. False Answer: A. True 16. Process improvement is a component of operational management. A. True B. False Answer: A. True 17. Performance management is a part of operational management. A. True B. False Answer: A. True 18. Operational management does not involve monitoring and evaluating operations. A. True B. False Answer: B. False 19. Operational management does not require knowledge of budgeting and finance. A. True B. False Answer: B. False 20. Operational management involves developing policies and procedures. A. True B. False Answer: A. True 21. Operational management does not involve problem solving. A. True B. False Answer: B. False 22. Team building is not a part of operational management. A. True B. False Answer: B. False 23. Resource allocation is not a part of operational management. A. True B. False Answer: B. False 24. Operational management does not involve decision making. A. True B. False Answer: B. False 25. Training and development are not components of operational management. A. True B. False Answer: B. False 💻📑📖https://t.me/exitexame💻📑📖

23. Which of the following is an example of a cross-functional team? a) Marketing team b) Human resources team c) Project team d) Departmental team 24. Which of the following is NOT a component of emotional intelligence? a) Self-awareness b) Self-regulation c) Social awareness d) Self-promotion 25. Which type of organizational structure encourages decentralized decision-making and employee empowerment? a) Functional structure b) Divisional structure c) Matrix structure d) Network structure 26. Which type of conflict resolution strategy involves asserting one's own needs and ignoring the needs of others? a) Accommodating b) Avoiding c) Competing d) Collaborating 27. Which financial ratio measures a company's ability to pay its short-term obligations? a) Return on Investment (ROI) b) Current ratio c) Debt-to-equity ratio d) Gross profit margin 28. Which type of power is based on an individual's personal charisma and charm? a) Legitimate power b) Coercive power c) Expert power d) Referent power 29. Which of the following is NOT a step in the performance appraisal process? a) Setting performance standards b) Conducting the appraisal c) Providing feedback d) Hiring new employees 30. Which type of marketing strategy targets a specific segment of the market with a specialized product or service? a) Differentiation strategy b) Cost leadership strategy c) Niche marketing strategy d) Market penetration strategy 31. Which of the following is an example of a macroenvironmental factor that can impact an organization? a) Employee turnover b) Competitive rivalry c) Technological advancements d) Supplier relationships 32. Which type of leadership style involves closely supervising employees and providing clear instructions? a) Autocratic b) Laissez-faire c) Transformational d) Democratic 33. Which of the following is a type of organizational structure that combines functional and product-based divisions? a) Matrix structure b) Network structure c) Divisional structure d) Team-based structure 34. Which type of risk management strategy aims to reduce the impact of a potential risk event? a) Avoidance b) Mitigation c) Acceptance d) Transference 35. Which of the following is NOT a component of the control process in management? a) Establishing standards b) Evaluating performance c) Setting goals d) Taking corrective action 36. Which type of innovation involves making incremental improvements to existing products or processes? a) Radical innovation b) Disruptive innovation c) Breakthrough innovation d) Continuous innovation 37. Which of the following is a characteristic of effective teams? a) Lack of diversity b) Low levels of communication c) Clear roles and responsibilities d) Absence of conflict 38. Which leadership theory suggests that effective leaders possess certain inherent traits or qualities? a) Contingency theory b) Situational leadership theory c) Trait theory d) Path-goal theory 39. Which financial statement shows a company's revenues, expenses, and net income over a specific period? a) Balance sheet b) Cash flow statement c) Income statement d) Statement of changes in equity 40. Which type of organizational culture places a strong emphasis on stability, rules, and efficiency? a) Adhocracy culture b) Clan culture c) Hierarchy culture d) Market culture 41. Which project management technique involves breaking down a project into smaller, manageable tasks? a) Critical path method b) Work breakdown structure c) Gantt chart d) Risk analysis 42. Which of the following is a component of the PESTEL framework used for environmental analysis? a) Internal factors b) Technological factors c) Competitive factors d) Financial factors

43. Which type of conflict arises from differences in goals, values, or beliefs? a) Interpersonal conflict b) Intrapersonal conflict c) Intergroup conflict d) Intragroup conflict 44. Which of the following is NOT a step in the recruitment and selection process? a) Job analysis b) Job posting c) Job evaluation d) Job offer 45. Which type of organizational change involves making significant, transformative shifts in the company's structure or strategy? a) Incremental change b) Evolutionary change c) Revolutionary change d) Reactive change 46. Which financial ratio measures a company's ability to generate profits from its assets? a) Return on Investment (ROI) b) Current ratio c) Debt-to-equity ratio d) Gross profit margin 47. Which of the following is a factor that affects individual motivation in the workplace? a) Organizational structure b) Social media usage c) Technological advancements d) Employee benefits 48. Which type of negotiation strategy involves assertively pursuing one's own goals while also considering the needs of the other party? a) Competitive strategy b) Collaborative strategy c) Avoidance strategy d) Compromise strategy 49. Which of the following is an example of a qualitative performance appraisal method? a) Ranking method b) Critical incident method c) Forced distribution method d) Management by objectives 50. Which ethical principle suggests that individuals should act in a way that treats others with fairness and impartiality? a) Justice b) Respect for autonomy c) Non-maleficence d) Beneficence

Answer: b) A technique to determine the shortest possible time to complete a project 18. What is a work breakdown structure? a) A tool to track progress against the project schedule b) A document that defines the scope of the project c) A hierarchical decomposition of the project's deliverables d) A document that outlines the roles and responsibilities of the project team Answer: c) A hierarchical decomposition of the project's deliverables 19. What is change control? a) A process to manage changes to the project budget b) The process of managing changes to the project schedule c) The process of managing changes to the project plan d) The process of managing changes to project team members Answer: c) The process of managing changes to the project plan 20. What is stakeholder management? a) A technique to manage project budgets b) The process of identifying and analyzing stakeholders c) A tool to measure the quality of project deliverables d) A technique to manage project risks Answer: b) The process of identifying and analyzing @exitexame

*PROJECT MANAGEMENT *** 1. Which of the following is not a phase of the project life cycle? A) Planning B) Execution C) Monitoring and controlling D) Closing Answer: E) Selling 2. What is the most important factor in risk management? A) Developing a risk plan B) Identifying potential risks C) Analyzing risks for probability and impact D) Communicating risks to stakeholders Answer: B) Identifying potential risks 3. What does Gantt chart represent? A) The sequence of tasks in a project B) The timeline of a project C) The timeline of the tasks in a project D) A and B Answer: D) A and B 4. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a successful project manager? A) Being open-minded B) Being a great communicator C) Being a taskmaster D) Being a technical expert Answer: D) Being a technical expert 5. Which of the following is not a component of project scope statement? A) Project deliverables B) Project constraints C) Project assumptions D) Project risks Answer: D) Project risks 6. Which type of organizational structure is most suitable for a high-risk project? A) Functional B) Matrix C) Projectized D) Hierarchical Answer: C) Projectized 7. A process used to generate numerous ideas or solutions to problems: A) Brainstorming B) Root Cause Analysis C) SWOT Analysis D) Pareto Chart Answer: A) Brainstorming 8. A statistical technique for analyzing the relationship between variables: A) Fishbone Diagram B) Regression Analysis C) Control Charts D) Pareto Chart Answer: B) Regression Analysis 9. What is the critical path in project management? A) The sequence of tasks with the shortest duration B) The sequence of tasks that have no slack time C) The sequence of tasks with the highest level of uncertainty D) The sequence of tasks with the lowest level of risk Answer: B) The sequence of tasks that have no slack time 10. In risk management, what does the acronym SWOT stand for? A) Strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats B) Stakeholders, work breakdown structure, oxygen tanks, timelines C) Schedule, work packages, objectives, taxes D) Sales, warrants, operations, training Answer: A) Strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats 11. Which of the following is NOT a project constraint? A) Scope B) Quality C) Resources D) Customer history Answer: D) Customer history 12. What is the primary purpose of a project charter? A) To identify risks B) To establish project authority C) To create a Gantt chart D) To allocate resources Answer: B) To establish project authority 13. Which of the following describes the critical path? A) The longest path through a project network B) The shortest path through a project network C) The most expensive pathway in a project D) The easiest pathway in a project Answer: A) The longest path through a project network 14. What does the term "scope creep" mean in project management? A) Changes to the project timeline B) Unanticipated problems that arise during the project C) Changes to the project scope without proper approval D) Project team members leaving the project mid-way Answer: C) Changes to the project scope without proper approval 15. In a work breakdown structure (WBS), what is the lowest level of detail? A) Task B) Subtask C) Work package D) Milestone Answer: C) Work package 16. What is the project charter? a) A document that defines the project's purpose, goals, and constraints b) The formal authorization of a project c) A document that outlines the roles and responsibilities of the project team d) A document that provides a detailed schedule for the project Answer: a) A document that defines the project's purpose, goals, and constraints 17. What is critical path analysis? a) A method to analyze the risks in a project b) A technique to determine the shortest possible time to complete a project c) A process to ensure that project team members are adequately trained d) A tool to measure the quality of project deliverables

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