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| 2 | 2450. Correct Answer C) 2 & 3
Explanation:
The tests that are not commonly used in osteoporosis are bone scan (option 2) and quantitative CT (option 3)
While DEXA (Dual-Energy X-ray Absorptiometry) is the gold standard for diagnosing osteoporosis, bone scan and quantitative CT are not as commonly employed in routine clinical practice for this purpose
Chemical analysis (option 4) and X-ray (option 5) can provide useful information but may not be as sensitive or specific for assessing bone density and diagnosing osteoporosis as DEXA
Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DXA or DEXA):Measures bone mineral density (BMD) at various sites, typically the hip and spine
Findings: T-score and Z-score values are reported, indicating the deviation of the patient's BMD from the average for their age and sex. Lower T-score values indicate lower bone density
Chemical analysis.
Involves analysis of bone tissue obtained through biopsy or autopsy
Findings: Provides direct measurement of mineral content and bone quality.
X-ray:
Commonly used for diagnosing fractures and assessing bone density
Findings: X-rays may show signs of osteoporosis such as vertebral compression fractures or decreased bone density
Blood tests
Measure various markers of bone turnover and metabolism, such as serum calcium, phosphorus, alkaline phosphatase, and vitamin D levels.
Findings: Abnormal levels of these markers may suggest underlying bone disorders.
Join @@PYQtimes | 1 060 |
| 3 | Нет текста... | 1 271 |
| 4 | 2549. Explanation
BMP (Bone morphogenic protein) is a substance that promotes bone formation treatment of non-union.
BMP is a naturally occurring protein that stimulates th mesenchymal stem cells into osteoblasts, the cell formation differentiation of sible for bone
It helps in initiating the bone healing process and promoting the growth of new bone tissue.
PMMA (Option A): It is a type of bone cement that is used in orthopedic surgeries for fixation, such as in joint replacements or vertebral augmentation procedures.
CaPO4 (Option C): It is not specifically used for bone formation in non-union. Calcium phosphate compounds may be used in bone grafting procedures to provide a scaffold for new bone growth.
CaSO4 (Option D): It is sometimes used as a bone graft substitute or filler in dic procedures, but it is not the primary substance used for bone formation union.
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| 5 | Нет текста... | 1 029 |
| 6 | 2548. Correct Answer: B) Distal end of humerus
Explanation:
Fishtail d
ty is commonly associated with a fracture of distal end of humerus.
separation of articular surface of distal humerus into two fragments. resembling the shape of fishtail.
Mechanism of injury: Fall on outstretched hand (FOOSH)
Location : Humerus fractures just above the condyles
Displacements :
The distal fragment of the humerus is usually displaced by
Posterior shift (Due to Impaction)
Posterior Tilt
Proximal shift
Medial shift/Tilt
Internal rotation
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| 7 | Нет текста... | 816 |
| 8 | 2547. Correct Answer B) Forward bending test
Explanation
Scoliosis screening in school children is typically done using the forward bending test, also known as the Adam's forward bend test
During this test, the child bends forward at the waist with arms extended towards the floor
This allows for the assessment of any asymmetry or abnormal curvature of the spine, which can indicate the presence of scoliosis
Scoliosis is a sideways curvature of the spine
Pathology
Primary Curve lateral curvature of the spine.
C ma atory Curves: curvatures that develop in the opposite direction to Jalance
Vertebral Rotation associated with rib prominence (rib hump) on the convex side, particularly in thoracic scoliosis.
Affected Areas. any part of the thoracolumbar
common patterns include:
Dorsal scoliosis
Dorso-lumbar scoliosis
Lumbar scoliosis
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| 9 | Нет текста... | 712 |
| 10 | 2546. Correct Answer: B) Extra-articular fracture of wrist.
Explanation:
The image shows a fracture of the wrist that does not involve the joint space, indicating an extra-articular fracture.
Extra-articular fractures occur outside the joint, typically involving the distal radius. They are commonly caused by falls or direct trauma to the wrist.
Traditional treatment refers to non-surgical methods of managing the fracture such as casting or splinting. | 507 |
| 11 |  2546. | 812 |
| 12 | 2546. A female patient with a history of fall few months back presents with the deformity shown in the image. Probing into history reveals it was managed with traditional treatment. This deformity is likely to be due to? | 843 |
| 13 | 2545. Explanation
Correct Answer: A) Red zone
Explanation:
The red zone of the meniscus, which has a good blood supply, also exhibits the best healing potential.
Meniscal tears are common knee injuries that often require surgical repair.
The meniscus is a C-shaped cartilage structure located in the knee joint, providing stability, load distribution, and shock absorption.
The meniscus is divided into different zones based on its vascularity and healing potential.
The red-white zone, where the vascular and avascular portions of the meniscus meet, has a good healing potential.
The red zone is the outermost region of the meniscus and has a good blood supply, allowing for the best healing capacity.
The white zone is the innermost region of the meniscus and has a poor blood supply, limiting its healing potential.
Repairing a meniscal tear in the red-white zone has the highest likelihood of successful healing due to the presence of a good blood supply.
Surgical techniques used for meniscal repair include suturing, meniscal fixation devices, and meniscal transplantation.
Postoperative rehabilitation and physical therapy are crucial for optimal recovery and functional outcomes.
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| 14 | Нет текста... | 1 464 |
| 15 | 2544. Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Cold abscess without neurological complication
Explanation:
Cold abscess without neurological complication in a patient with Pott's spine can be managed conservatively with anti-tuberculosis medication.
Surgery is typically not indicated in such cases, as long as there are no neurological complications.
Surgical procedures:
Costo-transversectomy
Anterolateral decompression
HONGKONG procedure: Anterior decompression and spinal fusion
Laminectomy
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| 16 | Нет текста... | 1 290 |
| 17 | 2543. Explanation
Correct Answer: A) Osteoarthritis
Explanation:
Involvement of PIP and DIP joint with sparing of MCP and wrist joints is suggestive of Osteoarthritis.
Joint involvement in Arthritic diseases:
Disease
Joint involved & characteristics
Proximal and Distal interphalangeal joints (PIP and DIP), 1st Carpometacarpal joint, Hip and knee
Asymmetrical involvement
Wrist and Metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joints are spared
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| 18 | Нет текста... | 1 100 |
| 19 | 2542. Explanation
Option B
Explanation:
The most likely diagnosis is Fat Embolism due to the combination of confusion, petechial rash, tachycardia, tachypnea, and low oxygen saturation following a femur fracture.
Fat Embolism
Fat embolism is a multi-organ disorder caused by fat globules entering the bloodstream, commonly occurring after high-risk orthopedic injuries, particularly femur fractures.
Classic Triad
Hypoxia
Petechiae
Altered mental status
Other Symptoms
Tachycardia, fever, anemia, thrombocytopenia, pulmonary dysfunction (e.g., tachypnea, respiratory acidosis).
Etiology
Young adults (20-30 years): Long bone fractures
latrogenic cause: Occurs after intramedullary (IM) nailing of the femur.
Pathogenesis
Following injury, fat from bone marrow or platelet agglutination enters injured vessels and travels as emboli, leading to various clinical manifestations.
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| 20 | 2542. 2542. What is probable diagnosis for patient who was admitted to intensive care unit 48 hours after fracturing their femur with a saturation of oxygen in rebreathing unit at 100%, but their SpO, remained at 60%The patient is also experiencing confusion,chest radiograph shows clear lung fields. | 623 |
