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Индия22 936 Медицина1 205...

📈 Аналитический обзор Telegram-канала Case-based MCQ

Канал Case-based MCQ (@casebasedmcq) языкового сегмента Английский является активным участником. Сейчас сообщество объединяет 19 269 подписчиков, занимая 1 205 место в категории Медицина и 22 936 место в регионе Индия.

📊 Показатели аудитории и динамика

С момента создания невідомо проект демонстрирует стремительный рост, собрав аудиторию из 19 269 подписчиков.

Согласно последним данным от 14 июня, 2026, канал показывает стабильную активность. За последние 30 дней изменение числа участников составило -201, а за последние 24 часа — -8, при этом общий охват остаётся высоким.

Статус верификации: Не верифицирован
Уровень вовлечённости (ER): Средний показатель вовлечённости аудитории составляет 2.24%. В первые 24 часа после публикации контент обычно набирает 1.09% реакций от общего числа подписчиков.
Охват публикаций: В среднем каждый пост получает 431 просмотров. В течение первых суток публикация набирает 210 просмотров.
Реакции и взаимодействия: Аудитория активно поддерживает контент: среднее количество реакций на один пост — 1.
Тематические интересы: Контент сосредоточен на ключевых темах, таких как boardvital, bmj, journal, usmle, drug.

📝 Описание и контентная политика

Автор описывает ресурс как площадку для выражения субъективного мнения:
“Enhance Your Medical Expertise with Case Based MCQ – Your Go-To Telegram Channel for Challenging, Real-World MCQs and Continuous Learning. Admin: @Mohamm_ADs”

Благодаря высокой частоте обновлений (последние данные получены 15 июня, 2026) канал поддерживает актуальность и высокий уровень охвата публикаций. Аналитика показывает, что аудитория активно взаимодействует с контентом, что делает его важной точкой влияния в категории Медицина.

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Подписчики

-824 часа

-567 дней

-20130 день

431

Просмотры поста

~ 21024 часа

~ 25848 часов

2.24%

Коэффициент вовлеченности

Нет данных

Постов в день

Ads index

beta

Архив постов

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Case-based MCQ | #MCQ_93 •••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••• Sarah, 48 years of age, underwent cholecystectomy 6 weeks ago for frequent episodes of biliary colic caused by gallstones. An intra-operative cholangiogram was clear with no left stones evident at that time. Today, she has presented because after being symptom-free for one week after the operation, she has started to have bloating and belching again. Which one of the following best explains her symptoms? A. Pancreatitis. B. Cystic duct stump syndrome. C. Stone left in the common bile duct. D. Symptoms are not related to gallstones. E. Post-cholecystectomy syndrome

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Case-based MCQ | #MCQ_92 •••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••• Correct Answer Is C The lump can be a segment of a small bowel loop entrapped in the inguinal region, namely inguinal hernia. Absent cough impulse is a pointer towards incarceration of the hernia. There are two points in the question. The first and most important one is the presence of constipation and abdominal distention consistent with bowel obstruction. The second point is the presence of an inguinal lump with no cough impulse, no pain, and no tenderness. The history and physical findings make small bowel obstruction (SBO) the most likely diagnosis and the first condition to exclude. The initial imaging of choice in assessment of suspected bowel obstruction is plain X-rays films. At least two views are required: upright view and supine view. Plain abdominal films can confirm the diagnosis in most patients without the need for further diagnostic testing, but they can be equivocal in 20-30% of patients, or normal or misleading in 10-20%. Abdominal X-rays are always the first imaging step in diagnosis.

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A 57-year-old man presents with constipation and abdominal distention for the past three days. On examination, a lump is noted in the left inguinal region. The lump has no cough impulse and is not tender or painful. Which one of the following is the best next investigation to consider in this patient? A. Ultrasound of the lump. B. Ultrasound of the abdomen. C. Erect and supine x-ray films of the abdomen. D. CT scan of the abdomen. E. Biopsy

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Case-based MCQ | #MCQ_91 •••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••• Correct Answer Is E Although giardiasis, viral gastroenteritis and celiac disease can all present with diarrhea and abdominal pain, no rectal tenderness is elicited on rectal exam. Urinary tract infection is not associated with tenderness on rectal exam either. Of the given options, the only one that can justify the clinical presentation is acute pelvic appendicitis. Clinical features of pelvic appendicitis are: - Absence of abdominal wall rigidity and tenderness - Tenderness in the rectovesical pouch and/or pouch of Douglas on rectal examination - Right-sided spasm of psoas muscle - Diarrhea due to irritation of the rectum by the inflamed appendix - Increased frequency of urination caused by irritation of bladder due to an inflamed appendix - Hypogastric pain brought on by internal rotation of a flexed hip due to contact of the inflamed appendix with the obturator internus muscle

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Repost from Medical Mnemonics

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Repost from Mediccount - Medical accounts

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Case-based MCQ | #MCQ_91 •••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••• A 34-year-old woman presents to your clinic complaining of abdominal pain and diarrhea one week after she returned from a trip to Thailand. While she was on the trip, she first noticed abdominal pain in the right iliac fossa which resolved subsequently. On examination, the abdomen is non-tender and soft with no rigidity or guarding. However, digital rectal exam is tender. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Giardiasis. B. Celiac disease. C. Rotavirus infection. D. Urinary tract infection. E. Appendicitis

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Case-based MCQ | #MCQ_90 •••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••• Correct Answer Is C The appearance of the rash and the history suggest herpes zoster (shingles) infection as the most likely diagnosis. Herpes zoster (shingles) is caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus (VZV). It usually occurs in adults but can be seen in children and in the first 2 years of life if there has been a history of maternal varicella. Pain is a significant complaint in patients with shingles. Tricyclic antidepressants and the anticonvulsant gabapentin are the most effective medications for pain control in neuropathic pain associated with shingles. ⚠ (Options A and B) Antiviral agents such as famciclovir, valacyclovir, or acyclovir should be used in any patient seen within 72 hours of the onset of vesicles, all patients with ophthalmic herpes zoster, and in immunocompromised patients. For pregnant women, only acyclovir (first line) or valaciclovir (second line) are used because the safety of famciclovir during pregnancy has yet to be established

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A 65-year-old man presents with an exquisitely painful vesicular rash, which has been present for the past 7 days and is increasingly painful. The rash is shown in the following photograph. His past medical history is unremarkable. Physical examination is otherwise inconclusive. Which one of the following is the most appropriate immediate management? A. Oral famciclovir. B. Intravenous famciclovir. C. Oral amitriptyline. D. Intramuscular immunoglobulin. E. Oral Phenergan® (promethazine).

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Case-based MCQ | #MCQ_90 •••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••• Correct Answer Is D The clinical findings such as mobility, subcutaneous location, and the consistency of the lumps make the multiple symmetrical lipomas the most likely diagnosis. Being lobulated is another important clue, as is the positive family history. Lipomas are benign tumors of mature fat cells. They are quite common and can be found in subcutaneous tissue. Although the subcutaneous fat layer is the most common site for lipomas to arise, they may be subfascial, intramuscular, or be found in many other sites. There is usually a genetic predisposition.

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A 50-year-old woman presents to your clinic with multiple lumps. She has had these lumps for 20 years. The only complaint, apart from her concerns about the look of the lumps, is that they become painful at times. On examination, about 30 mobile subcutaneous lumps feel soft, rubbery, and lobulated when palpated. They are distributed bilaterally in her upper and lower extremities, chest, and back. She mentions that her mother has the same problem. She is otherwise healthy. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Adipose dolorosa. B. Multiple desmoid tumors. C. Multiple epidermoid cysts. D. Multiple symmetrical subcutaneous lipomas. E. Neurofibromatosis type I (Von Recklinghausen disease of nerve).

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Case-based MCQ | #MCQ_89 •••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••• The itching, the appearance of the lesions and living in a nursing home all favor of scabies as the most likely diagnosis. First-line medication for treatment of scabies is permethrin 5% cream. If treatment with permethrin fails or the patient is sensitive to this drug, benzyl benzoate can be used as second-line therapy. Benzyl benzoate is more irritating to skin and the treatment is likely to fail due to inadequate adherence.

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Repost from Mediccount - Medical accounts

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Repost from Mediccount - Medical accounts

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Case-based MCQ | #MCQ_89 •••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••• The following photograph shows skin lesions on the hand of a 73-year-old woman, who resides in a nursing home. The lesions are severely itchy and she keeps scratching them, especially in the night. The itch prevents her from a good night sleep. On examination, she looks disheveled and poorly cared for. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate treatment for her? A. Permethrin 5% cream. B. Itraconazole cream. C. Topical corticosteroids. D. Gamma benzene hexachloride. E. Topical erythromycin

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Case-based MCQ | #MCQ_88 •••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••••• Correct Answer Is B The photograph shows a flat amelanotic lesion on the left pinna that has undergone ulceration and is slightly crusted. The appearance of the lesion is consistent with cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) as the most likely diagnosis. The classic presentation of a cutaneous SCC includes a shallow ulcer with heaped-up edges, often covered by a plaque usually in a sun-exposed area. Typical surface changes may include the following: Scaling Ulceration Crusting A cutaneous horn Less commonly, cutaneous SCC presents as a pink cutaneous nodule without overlying surface changes. Regional spread of head and neck cutaneous SCCs, may result in enlarged preauricular, submandibular, or cervical lymph nodes. NOTE - Although, the appearance of the lesion resembles SCC, it should be noted that at times SCC, keratoacanthoma, BCC, or even amelanotic forms of melanoma may look similar and the definite diagnosis cannot be made unless biopsy and histologic studies are performed. However, because of the classic features of the lesion and also the fact that squamous SCC is the most common skin cancer, SCC would be the most likely diagnosis in this case.