stuff 🩷

👑 A 30-year-old woman with Wilson disease requests long-acting reversible contraception. Which method is CONTRAINDICATED? 🔹A) Mirena (levonorgestrel intrauterine device). 🔹B) Implanon implant. 🔹C) Copper intrauterine device. 🔹D) Progestin-only pills.

الدكتورة عرضته بس سويته MCQ

الA Copper > cramps + HEAVY bleeding

👑 A 32-year-old multiparous woman with heavy menstrual bleeding wants reliable long-term contraception. Which is the MOST appropriate option? 🔹A) Copper intrauterine device. 🔹B) Combined oral contraceptive pills. 🔹C) Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system. 🔹D) Progestin-only pills.

copper IUDs are associated with a 40% reduction in the risk of endometrial cancer Merina (LNG-IUD) can be used as treatment for postmenopausal bleeding

👑 A 28-year-old woman who is 6 weeks postpartum and exclusively breastfeeding wants contraception. Which method is MOST appropriate? 🔹A) Combined oral contraceptive pills. 🔹B) Progestin-only pills. 🔹C) No contraception is needed during breastfeeding. 🔹D) Estrogen-containing patch.

👑 A woman using progestin-only pills took her pill 5 hours late. Which advice is MOST appropriate according to the slide? 🔹A) No additional contraception is needed if only one pill is delayed. 🔹B) Use backup contraception for 24 hours. 🔹C) Use backup contraception for 48 hours. 🔹D) Use backup contraception for 7 days.

👑 A 36-year-old woman who smokes 15 cigarettes/day has a body mass index of 31 and a history of migraine with aura. She requests combined oral contraceptive pills. Which is the MOST appropriate management? 🔹A) Start combined oral contraceptive pills because obesity is the only concern. 🔹B) Start combined oral contraceptive pills with smoking cessation counseling only. 🔹C) Avoid combined oral contraceptive pills and offer progestin-only pills instead. 🔹D) Combined oral contraceptive pills are contraindicated only if she is older than 40 years.

سلايدات اضافية معروضة و تاشيرات مهمة

PHC-12

خلصنا الي يحس روحه ممسيطر يرجع يراجعها باجر :) بالتوفيق يارب

👑 A 42-week pregnant woman with body mass index 36 and chronic poor nutrition delivers a 2600 g infant. The infant is below the 10th percentile for gestational age. During pregnancy, the mother had hypertension, proteinuria, and low calcium intake. The baby later develops abnormal retinal development, while an older sibling had spina bifida. Which combination is MOST accurate according to the lecture? 🔹A) Infant is low birth weight; maternal calcium deficiency is unrelated to prematurity; retinal abnormality most likely due to vitamin K deficiency. 🔹B) Infant is small for gestational age; maternal calcium deficiency may contribute to uteroplacental insufficiency; retinal abnormality is linked to omega-3/docosahexaenoic acid deficiency; previous spina bifida suggests need for 5 mg folic acid in future pregnancies. 🔹C) Infant is extremely low birth weight; maternal obesity protects against lactation problems; neural tube defects are most linked to iodine deficiency. 🔹D) Infant is appropriate for gestational age because weight is above 2500 g; retinal abnormality is unrelated to maternal nutrition; folic acid only needed after conception.