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Q206: Zygomycosis is also known as: A) Histoplasmosis B) Mucormycosis or Phycomycosis C) Cryptococcosis D) Aspergillosis ✅ Correct Answer: B) Mucormycosis or Phycomycosis Q207: The causative agents of Zygomycosis include: A) Candida, Aspergillus, Cryptococcus B) Histoplasma, Blastomyces, Coccidioides C) Mucor, Rhizopus, and Absidia D) Sporothrix, Madurella, Piedraia ✅ Correct Answer: C) Mucor, Rhizopus, and Absidia Q208: The most common causative agent of Zygomycosis in humans is: A) Rhizopus microsporus B) Rhizopus arrhizus C) Rhizopus stolonifer D) Mucor circinelloides ✅ Correct Answer: B) Rhizopus arrhizus Q209: Zygomycosis is the _______ most frequent cause of invasive fungal infection in immunocompromised patients: A) First B) Second C) Third D) Fourth ✅ Correct Answer: C) Third Q210: Agents of Zygomycosis have a high degree of predilection to invade: A) Neurons B) Major blood vessels → leading to ischemia, necrosis, and infarction C) Connective tissue only D) Lymph nodes ✅ Correct Answer: B) Major blood vessels → leading to ischemia, necrosis, and infarction Q211: Agents of Zygomycosis are transmitted by: A) Skin contact B) Ingestion of food C) Air, through their asexual spores D) Insect vectors ✅ Correct Answer: C) Air, through their asexual spores Q212: The most common manifestation of Zygomycosis seen in patients with diabetic acidosis is: A) Pulmonary zygomycosis B) Gastrointestinal zygomycosis C) Rhinocerebral zygomycosis D) Cutaneous zygomycosis ✅ Correct Answer: C) Rhinocerebral zygomycosis Q213: Most infections produced by Zygomycetes are: A) Chronic and slowly progressive B) Acute and usually fatal despite early diagnosis and treatment C) Self-limiting D) Mild and localized ✅ Correct Answer: B) Acute and usually fatal despite early diagnosis and treatment Q214: P. marneffei is characterized by being: A) The most common Penicillium causing infections B) The only dimorphic fungus in the genus Penicillium known to cause opportunistic infection C) A non-dimorphic pathogen D) A yeast-only organism ✅ Correct Answer: B) The only dimorphic fungus in the genus Penicillium known to cause opportunistic infection Q215: Culture of P. marneffei should be done in a laboratory with: A) No special precautions B) Biohazard safety level-2 precautions C) Specialized hospital only D) Standard laboratory ✅ Correct Answer: B) Biohazard safety level-2 precautions Q216: P. marneffei on SDA without cycloheximide at 25°C produces: A) Completely white creamy colonies B) Mycelial grayish white colonies, green center, white periphery, and bright rose pigmented reverse C) Black shiny colonies D) Brown-red colonies ✅ Correct Answer: B) Mycelial grayish white colonies, green center, white periphery, and bright rose pigmented reverse Q217: P. marneffei on SDA at 37°C produces: A) White mycelial colonies B) Yeast-like colonies, cream-colored mucoid with brown-red pigment C) Green colonies D) Does not grow at 37°C ✅ Correct Answer: B) Yeast-like colonies, cream-colored mucoid with brown-red pigment Q218: Peripheral blood smear shows P. marneffei in patients with: A) Normal healthy adults B) Diabetic patients C) AIDS patients D) Hepatitis patients ✅ Correct Answer: C) AIDS patients Q219: Culture is the gold standard for P. marneffei diagnosis. Which statement is TRUE? A) It grows slowly requiring 3 months B) P. marneffei is highly infectious, requiring biohazard safety level-2 precautions C) It cannot be grown on SDA D) No safety precautions are needed ✅ Correct Answer: B) P. marneffei is highly infectious, requiring biohazard safety level-2 precautions

Q193: The majority of human Aspergillus diseases are caused by: A) A. clavatus and A. flavus B) A. fumigatus and A. niger C) A. terreus and A. glaucus D) A. versicolor and A. sydowii ✅ Correct Answer: B) A. fumigatus and A. niger Q194: Aspergillus species are: A) Yeasts B) Dimorphic fungi C) Molds with septate hyphae D) Intracellular fungi ✅ Correct Answer: C) Molds with septate hyphae Q195: Aspergillus hyphae form branching at: A) 90° angle (right angle) B) V-shaped dichotomous branching (45°) C) Parallel arrangement D) Spiral pattern ✅ Correct Answer: B) V-shaped dichotomous branching (45°) Q196: Aspergillus species are identified by: A) Size only B) Color only C) Morphological features + pattern of conidiophore development + color of conidia D) Type of sexual spores ✅ Correct Answer: C) Morphological features + pattern of conidiophore development + color of conidia Q197: Aspergillus on SDA at 25°C produces colonies within: A) 30 minutes B) 1-2 days (velvety surface) C) 2 weeks D) 1 month ✅ Correct Answer: B) 1-2 days (velvety surface) Q198: Unlike Candida species, Aspergillus species do NOT form part of the normal human flora, therefore transmission is: A) Endogenous (from within the body) B) Mostly exogenous (from the environment) C) From person to person D) From animals to humans ✅ Correct Answer: B) Mostly exogenous (from the environment) Q199: In immunocompetent hosts, Aspergillus species primarily affect the lungs causing four main syndromes. Which is NOT one of them? A) Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis B) Aspergilloma C) Invasive aspergillosis D) Meningitis ✅ Correct Answer: D) Meningitis Q200: Direct KOH preparation of specimen in Aspergillosis shows: A) Wide nonseptate hyphae with right angle branching B) Nonpigmented, septate hyphae with characteristic dichotomous branching at 45° C) Encapsulated yeast cells D) Rectangular arthrospores ✅ Correct Answer: B) Nonpigmented, septate hyphae with characteristic dichotomous branching at 45° Q201: For culture of Aspergillus, SDA is used: A) With cycloheximide B) WITHOUT cycloheximide, incubated at 25°C for 1-2 days C) With blood only D) With activated charcoal ✅ Correct Answer: B) WITHOUT cycloheximide, incubated at 25°C for 1-2 days Q202: Estimation of serum galactomannan is useful for diagnosis of: A) Candidiasis B) Cryptococcosis C) Invasive aspergillosis D) Histoplasmosis ✅ Correct Answer: C) Invasive aspergillosis Q203: Diagnosis of allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis is established by: A) India ink for CSF B) Germ tube test C) Positive skin test for A. fumigatus + highly increased serum IgE (1000 IU/cc) D) Latex agglutination ✅ Correct Answer: C) Positive skin test for A. fumigatus + highly increased serum IgE (1000 IU/cc) Q204: Serum IgG levels are usually positive in: A) Invasive aspergillosis B) Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis C) Aspergilloma D) Chronic necrotizing aspergillus pneumonia ✅ Correct Answer: C) Aspergilloma Q205: Aspergillus spp. produce toxic metabolites that inhibit: A) Antibody production B) Macrophage and neutrophil phagocytosis C) T cell activity D) Kidney function ✅ Correct Answer: B) Macrophage and neutrophil phagocytosis

Q177: The most common fungal pathogens that affect humans are: A) Aspergillus species B) Cryptococcus species C) Candida species D) Mucor species ✅ Correct Answer: C) Candida species Q178: C. albicans forms part of the normal flora of: A) Normal skin only B) Gastrointestinal tract, genitourinary tract, and respiratory tract C) Brain and spinal cord D) Blood and lymph ✅ Correct Answer: B) Gastrointestinal tract, genitourinary tract, and respiratory tract Q179: Candida grows readily on SDA, and C. albicans produces: A) Green velvety colonies B) Creamy white, smooth colonies with a yeasty odor C) Black shiny colonies D) Gray-white colonies with green center ✅ Correct Answer: B) Creamy white, smooth colonies with a yeasty odor Q180: Germ tube test is a rapid method for identification of: A) Cryptococcus neoformans B) Aspergillus fumigatus C) Candida albicans and Candida dubliniensis D) Histoplasma capsulatum ✅ Correct Answer: C) Candida albicans and Candida dubliniensis Q181: In the Germ tube test, C. albicans produces germ tube within 2 hours when incubated in human serum at: A) 25°C B) 37°C C) 42°C D) 4°C ✅ Correct Answer: B) 37°C Q182: The phenomenon of germ tube production by C. albicans is called: A) Endosporulation B) Reynold-Braude phenomenon C) Dimorphism phenomenon D) Blastospore phenomenon ✅ Correct Answer: B) Reynold-Braude phenomenon Q183: Chlamydospores are typically produced by C. albicans on: A) SDA at 37°C B) Blood agar at 37°C C) Cornmeal agar at 25°C D) CHROM agar at 42°C ✅ Correct Answer: C) Cornmeal agar at 25°C Q184: C. albicans and Candida glabrata are responsible for causing infection in what percentage of patients with invasive candidiasis? A) 20-30% B) 40-50% C) 70-80% D) 95-100% ✅ Correct Answer: C) 70-80% Q185: Demonstration of pseudohyphae in a clinical specimen indicates: A) Contamination only B) Infection and tissue invasion (of more diagnostic value) C) Superficial infection only D) Treated fungal infection ✅ Correct Answer: B) Infection and tissue invasion (of more diagnostic value) Q186: The first stage in the pathogenesis of Candidal infection is: A) Direct entry into bloodstream B) Colonization of the mucocutaneous surface C) Toxin production D) Immune suppression ✅ Correct Answer: B) Colonization of the mucocutaneous surface Q187: The most important predisposing condition for life-threatening Candida infection in patients with hematologic malignancies is: A) High fever B) Severe neutropenia C) Low IgG D) Decreased T cells ✅ Correct Answer: B) Severe neutropenia Q188: The most common manifestation of Candidiasis is: A) Disseminated candidiasis B) Systemic candidiasis C) Mucocutaneous candidiasis (thrush) D) Candidemia ✅ Correct Answer: C) Mucocutaneous candidiasis (thrush) Q189: Skin test with Candida antigen in immunocompetent adults is: A) Always negative B) Uniformly positive (indicates intact CMI) C) Variable D) Unreliable ✅ Correct Answer: B) Uniformly positive (indicates intact CMI) Q190: Skin test with Candida antigen is negative in individuals who: A) Are normal healthy adults B) Have deficient CMI (anergic individuals) C) Have acute Candidiasis D) Are diabetic patients ✅ Correct Answer: B) Have deficient CMI (anergic individuals) Q191: Only C. albicans produces chlamydospores on cornmeal agar at 25°C. Which statement about CHROM agar is correct? A) It cannot differentiate Candida species B) It allows presumptive identification of several Candida species by color reaction C) It requires 37°C for identification D) It shows the same color for all Candida species ✅ Correct Answer: B) It allows presumptive identification of several Candida species by color reaction Q192: Treatment of Candida infections includes all of the following EXCEPT: A) Fluconazole B) Amphotericin B C) Nystatin D) Penicillin ✅ Correct Answer: D) Penicillin

Q161: Cryptococcosis is also called: A) North American blastomycosis B) South American blastomycosis C) European blastomycosis D) African cryptococcosis ✅ Correct Answer: C) European blastomycosis Q162: Cryptococcus neoformans is: A) A mold (Aspergillus-like) B) A dimorphic fungus C) An encapsulated true yeast D) An intracellular fungus ✅ Correct Answer: C) An encapsulated true yeast Q163: The diameter of C. neoformans is: A) 1-2 µm B) 3-6 µm C) 10-20 µm D) 30-60 µm ✅ Correct Answer: B) 3-6 µm Q164: The polysaccharide capsule of C. neoformans is composed of: A) Chitin + Mannan + Beta-glucan B) Mannose + Xylose + Glucuronic acid C) Glucose + Galactose + Fructose D) Peptidoglycan + Teichoic acid ✅ Correct Answer: B) Mannose + Xylose + Glucuronic acid Q165: The polysaccharide capsule of C. neoformans is: A) Promotes phagocytosis B) Antiphagocytic (prevents recognition by phagocytes) C) Stimulates cell-mediated immunity D) Has no role in pathogenesis ✅ Correct Answer: B) Antiphagocytic (prevents recognition by phagocytes) Q166: C. neoformans on SDA medium forms: A) Green velvety colonies B) Black shiny colonies C) Smooth, convex, cream-colored colonies at 20-37°C D) White cottony colonies ✅ Correct Answer: C) Smooth, convex, cream-colored colonies at 20-37°C Q167: Cryptococcosis is the most common life-threatening fungal disease in: A) Newborn infants B) Diabetic patients C) Patients with AIDS D) Elderly patients ✅ Correct Answer: C) Patients with AIDS Q168: C. neoformans is primarily transmitted by: A) Skin contact B) Inhalation C) Ingestion of contaminated food D) Blood transfusion ✅ Correct Answer: B) Inhalation Q169: India ink preparation of CSF in Cryptococcal meningitis shows: A) Rectangular arthrospores B) Capsule of C. neoformans appearing as a clear halo around the yeast cells C) Pseudohyphae of Candida D) Spherules with endospores ✅ Correct Answer: B) Capsule of C. neoformans appearing as a clear halo around the yeast cells Q170: By India ink method, Cryptococci can be demonstrated in what percentage of patients with Cryptococcal meningitis? A) 5-10% B) 10-20% C) 25-50% D) 80-90% ✅ Correct Answer: C) 25-50% Q171: The stain that preferentially stains C. neoformans in fixed tissue is: A) Gram stain B) India ink C) Mucicarmine D) Giemsa ✅ Correct Answer: C) Mucicarmine Q172: Latex Agglutination Test (LAT) in Cryptococcosis detects: A) IgM antibodies B) Cryptococcal polysaccharide antigen in serum or CSF C) Mannan in Candidiasis D) Galactomannan in Aspergillosis ✅ Correct Answer: B) Cryptococcal polysaccharide antigen in serum or CSF Q173: Gram-stained smear of CSF in Cryptococcosis shows: A) Gram-negative yeast cells B) Gram-positive yeast cells C) Gram-variable organisms D) No staining ✅ Correct Answer: B) Gram-positive yeast cells Q174: C. neoformans has two varieties: A) C. neoformans var. fumigatus and var. niger B) C. neoformans var. neoformans and var. gattii C) C. neoformans var. albicans and var. tropicalis D) C. neoformans var. immitis and var. brasiliensis ✅ Correct Answer: B) C. neoformans var. neoformans and var. gattii Q175: Glucosylceramide synthase in C. neoformans is: A) A fungal toxin causing tissue damage B) An essential factor for survival of C. neoformans in pulmonary alveoli C) An antigen used in diagnosis D) An enzyme for capsule synthesis ✅ Correct Answer: B) An essential factor for survival of C. neoformans in pulmonary alveoli Q176: C. neoformans usually causes most serious infections in patients with impaired CMI, including all EXCEPT: A) Patients with AIDS B) Patients undergoing corticosteroid treatment C) Patients with intact immunity D) Patients undergoing organ transplantation ✅ Correct Answer: C) Patients with intact immunity

Q154: Blastomycosis is a granulomatous fungal infection caused by: A) Histoplasma capsulatum B) Coccidioides immitis C) Blastomyces dermatitidis D) Paracoccidioides brasiliensis ✅ Correct Answer: C) Blastomyces dermatitidis Q155: B. dermatitidis in tissue at 37°C appears as: A) Spherule filled with endospores B) Round yeast with double refractile wall and a single broad-based bud C) Encapsulated yeast with thin wall D) Pseudohyphae ✅ Correct Answer: B) Round yeast with double refractile wall and a single broad-based bud Q156: What differentiates B. dermatitidis from Cryptococcus neoformans in tissue? A) B. dermatitidis has a capsule B) B. dermatitidis has broad-based bud while C. neoformans has narrow-based bud C) B. dermatitidis is smaller D) B. dermatitidis is Gram-positive ✅ Correct Answer: B) B. dermatitidis has broad-based bud while C. neoformans has narrow-based bud Q157: B. dermatitidis in soil at 25°C produces: A) Spherules B) Mycelial growth showing typical pyriform microconidia (2-4 µm) C) Encapsulated yeast D) Rectangular arthrospores ✅ Correct Answer: B) Mycelial growth showing typical pyriform microconidia (2-4 µm) Q158: B. dermatitidis infection occurs by: A) Animal contact B) Inhalation of microconidia from soil C) Ingestion of contaminated food D) Direct skin wound inoculation ✅ Correct Answer: B) Inhalation of microconidia from soil Q159: The thick cell wall of B. dermatitidis yeasts offers: A) More antigenic stimulation B) Resistance to phagocytosis C) Higher replication rate D) Distinctive staining characteristics ✅ Correct Answer: B) Resistance to phagocytosis Q160: The most common site of extrapulmonary Blastomycosis is: A) Brain B) Bones C) Skin D) Liver ✅ Correct Answer: C) Skin

Q143: Histoplasmosis is primarily a disease of: A) Central nervous system B) Reticuloendothelial system caused by Histoplasma capsulatum C) Skin and nails D) Urinary system ✅ Correct Answer: B) Reticuloendothelial system caused by Histoplasma capsulatum Q144: Histoplasma capsulatum is an intracellular fungus that multiplies inside: A) Red blood cells B) Macrophages C) T cells D) Neurons ✅ Correct Answer: B) Macrophages Q145: H. capsulatum on SDA at 25°C is characterized by: A) Yeast cells only B) Thin, branching, septate hyphae that produce tuberculate macroconidia and microconidia C) Spherules D) Pseudohyphae ✅ Correct Answer: B) Thin, branching, septate hyphae that produce tuberculate macroconidia and microconidia Q146: H. capsulatum infection is acquired by: A) Direct skin contact B) Inhalation of conidia and mycelial fragments from contaminated soil C) Ingestion of contaminated food D) Insect bites ✅ Correct Answer: B) Inhalation of conidia and mycelial fragments from contaminated soil Q147: Inside the lungs, H. capsulatum multiplies within macrophages approximately every: A) 1-2 hours B) 6-8 hours C) 15-18 hours D) 48 hours ✅ Correct Answer: C) 15-18 hours Q148: Bats play an important role in transmission of Histoplasmosis through: A) Direct bites B) Their droppings contaminating the soil C) Breathing on humans D) Skin contact ✅ Correct Answer: B) Their droppings contaminating the soil Q149: The incubation period of Histoplasmosis varies from: A) 1-3 days B) 3-14 days C) 1 month D) 6 months ✅ Correct Answer: B) 3-14 days Q150: Progressive disseminated histoplasmosis is seen in: A) Completely healthy individuals B) Young children only C) Immunocompromised patients such as AIDS patients D) Elderly only ✅ Correct Answer: C) Immunocompromised patients such as AIDS patients Q151: Laboratory diagnosis of Histoplasmosis depends on demonstration of: A) Spherules in sputum B) Oval yeast cells within macrophages in bone marrow aspirates and tissue biopsy specimens C) Arthroconidia in hair D) Pseudohyphae in blood ✅ Correct Answer: B) Oval yeast cells within macrophages in bone marrow aspirates and tissue biopsy specimens Q152: Anti-H antibody in Histoplasmosis is: A) Least specific and not useful B) More specific for active histoplasmosis, positive in 50-80% of patients, remains elevated for years C) Disappears quickly after recovery D) Found only in normal persons ✅ Correct Answer: B) More specific for active histoplasmosis, positive in 50-80% of patients, remains elevated for years Q153: Serological tests useful for diagnosis of Histoplasmosis include: A) India ink and Latex agglutination B) Complement-fixation test (CFT) and Immunodiffusion (ID) C) Germ tube test and Urease test D) KOH preparation and LPCB ✅ Correct Answer: B) Complement-fixation test (CFT) and Immunodiffusion (ID)

Q134: Paracoccidioidomycosis is also known as: A) North American blastomycosis B) European blastomycosis C) South American blastomycosis D) African histoplasmosis ✅ Correct Answer: C) South American blastomycosis Q135: Another name for Paracoccidioidomycosis is: A) Lutz-Splendore-Almeida disease B) San Joaquin Valley fever C) Chicago disease D) Rose thorn disease ✅ Correct Answer: A) Lutz-Splendore-Almeida disease Q136: P. brasiliensis is a thermally dimorphic fungus that occurs as mold in soil and as yeast in tissue. The unique characteristic of its yeast form is: A) Single narrow-based bud B) Multiple blastoconidia from multiple sites resembling "Mickey Mouse head" or "pilot wheel" C) Formation of pseudohyphae D) Production of a polysaccharide capsule ✅ Correct Answer: B) Multiple blastoconidia from multiple sites resembling "Mickey Mouse head" or "pilot wheel" Q137: The characteristic appearance of P. brasiliensis helps to differentiate it from: A) Histoplasma capsulatum B) Cryptococcus neoformans C) Blastomyces dermatitidis D) Coccidioides immitis ✅ Correct Answer: C) Blastomyces dermatitidis Q138: Paracoccidioidomycosis infection occurs by: A) Direct skin contact with infected person B) Inhalation of conidia or mycelial fragments, or orally by ingestion C) Insect bites D) Blood transfusion ✅ Correct Answer: B) Inhalation of conidia or mycelial fragments, or orally by ingestion Q139: The primary site of infection in Paracoccidioidomycosis is: A) Skin B) Central nervous system C) Lungs D) Liver ✅ Correct Answer: C) Lungs Q140: The most important defense mechanism in Paracoccidioidomycosis is: A) Humoral immunity (IgG) B) Cell-mediated immunity (CMI) C) Macrophages only D) NK cells only ✅ Correct Answer: B) Cell-mediated immunity (CMI) Q141: Laboratory diagnosis of Paracoccidioidomycosis depends on demonstration of: A) India ink for capsule B) Large, multiple budding yeasts (blastoconidia) in 30% KOH wet mount of sputum C) Germ tube test D) Urease test ✅ Correct Answer: B) Large, multiple budding yeasts (blastoconidia) in 30% KOH wet mount of sputum Q142: The organism of Paracoccidioidomycosis is isolated by culture on SDA at 37°C after: A) 1-2 days B) 5-7 days C) 20-30 days D) 3 months ✅ Correct Answer: C) 20-30 days

Blastomycosis ✅ Correct Answer: C) Candidiasis Q125: Coccidioides immitis is: A) Always a mold B) A pure yeast C) A dimorphic fungus D) A trimorphic fungus ✅ Correct Answer: C) A dimorphic fungus Q126: In soil and at 25°C, C. immitis exists as: A) Spherule B) Mold producing arthroconidia C) Encapsulated yeast D) Pseudohyphae ✅ Correct Answer: B) Mold producing arthroconidia Q127: In tissue and at 37°C, C. immitis exists as: A) Arthroconidia B) Mycelium C) Spherule (parasitic stage) D) Chlamydospores ✅ Correct Answer: C) Spherule (parasitic stage) Q128: The infective stage of Coccidioides immitis is: A) Spherule B) Endospores C) Arthroconidia D) Pseudohyphae ✅ Correct Answer: C) Arthroconidia Q129: The parasitic stage of C. immitis reproduces by a process known as: A) Budding B) Endosporulation C) Binary fission D) Conjugation ✅ Correct Answer: B) Endosporulation Q130: The spherule of C. immitis is characterized by: A) Narrow-based budding B) Oval shape with thick, double refractile wall filled with endospores C) Production of pseudohyphae D) Pigmented cell wall ✅ Correct Answer: B) Oval shape with thick, double refractile wall filled with endospores Q131: The most definitive method for diagnosis of Coccidioidomycosis is: A) India ink preparation B) Latex agglutination C) Culture on SDA producing white cottony colony within 5 days D) KOH preparation ✅ Correct Answer: C) Culture on SDA producing white cottony colony within 5 days Q132: Enzyme immunoassay (EIA) in Coccidioidomycosis detects: A) IgG antibodies to mycelial phase antigens B) IgM antibodies to mycelial phase antigens C) IgA antibodies D) IgE antibodies ✅ Correct Answer: B) IgM antibodies to mycelial phase antigens Q133: Arthroconidia of C. immitis in culture pose a significant risk to laboratory personnel because: A) They produce toxic metabolites B) They are infectious C) They are highly resistant to disinfectants D) They produce aflatoxin ✅ Correct Answer: B) They are infectious

Q107: Subcutaneous mycosis enters the body through: A) Inhalation B) Contaminated food C) Percutaneous inoculation from trivial trauma D) Insect bites ✅ Correct Answer: C) Percutaneous inoculation from trivial trauma Q108: The triad of Mycetoma consists of: A) Fever + Cough + Dyspnea B) Tumefaction + Draining sinuses + Grains/Granules C) Ulcers + Swelling + Itching D) Skin patches + Cataracts + Bone pain ✅ Correct Answer: B) Tumefaction + Draining sinuses + Grains/Granules Q109: Mycetoma organisms enter through: A) Inhalation of spores B) Contaminated food C) Penetrating injuries from thorn pricks, splinters D) Animal bites ✅ Correct Answer: C) Penetrating injuries from thorn pricks, splinters Q110: The most commonly involved area in Mycetoma is: A) Face and neck B) Chest and abdomen C) Lower extremities D) Back and spine ✅ Correct Answer: C) Lower extremities Q111: Black grain in Mycetoma is caused by: A) Pseudoallescheria boydii and Actinomadura madurae B) Madurella mycetomatis and Madurella grisea C) Actinomadura pelletieri only D) Nocardia brasiliensis ✅ Correct Answer: B) Madurella mycetomatis and Madurella grisea Q112: Red grain in Mycetoma is caused by: A) Madurella mycetomatis B) Pseudoallescheria boydii C) Actinomadura pelletieri D) Curvularia geniculata ✅ Correct Answer: C) Actinomadura pelletieri Q113: The size of granules in Mycetoma ranges from: A) 0.1 - 0.5 mm B) 0.5 - 3 mm C) 3 - 10 mm D) 10 - 30 mm ✅ Correct Answer: B) 0.5 - 3 mm Q114: Sporotrichosis is caused by: A) Piedraia hortae B) Sporothrix schenckii C) Rhinosporidium seeberi D) Madurella mycetomatis ✅ Correct Answer: B) Sporothrix schenckii Q115: Sporothrix schenckii is: A) A mold only B) A yeast only C) A dimorphic fungus D) A monomorphic fungus ✅ Correct Answer: C) A dimorphic fungus Q116: The infective stage of Sporothrix schenckii is: A) Mycelium B) Arthrospores C) Spores D) Pseudohyphae ✅ Correct Answer: C) Spores Q117: Infection with Sporothrix schenckii is typically introduced through: A) Inhalation B) Ingestion of contaminated food C) Penetration of skin by a thorn D) Contact with contaminated water ✅ Correct Answer: C) Penetration of skin by a thorn Q118: In infected tissue at 37°C, Sporothrix schenckii yeast appears as: A) Rectangular arthrospores B) Spherules with endospores C) Round, oval, or cigar-shaped cells with irregular borders D) Pseudohyphae ✅ Correct Answer: C) Round, oval, or cigar-shaped cells with irregular borders Q119: Stains useful to demonstrate S. schenckii structures in tissue smears include: A) India ink and KOH B) Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) or Gomori's methenamine silver (GMS) C) Gram stain and Giemsa D) Calcofluor white only ✅ Correct Answer: B) Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) or Gomori's methenamine silver (GMS) Q120: S. schenckii on SDA at 25°C produces: A) Creamy white smooth colonies B) Black and shiny colonies that become wrinkled and foggy C) Green velvety colonies D) Gray-white colonies with green center ✅ Correct Answer: B) Black and shiny colonies that become wrinkled and foggy Q121: Laboratory diagnosis of Sporotrichosis is made by demonstration of: A) Spaghetti and meatballs in KOH B) Asteroid bodies in pus of abscesses C) Spherules with endospores in sputum D) Pilot wheel in KOH ✅ Correct Answer: B) Asteroid bodies in pus of abscesses Q122: Asteroid bodies consist of: A) An ascus containing ascospores B) A central basophilic budding yeast cell with eosinophilic material radiating from the center C) A spherule filled with endospores D) A cluster of arthrospores ✅ Correct Answer: B) A central basophilic budding yeast cell with eosinophilic material radiating from the center WEEK 7: Systemic Mycoses Q123: Systemic mycoses are caused by fungi of soil that cause disease in: A) Immunocompromised hosts only B) Healthy humans (characteristically virulent) C) Children only D) Elderly only ✅ Correct Answer: B) Healthy humans (characteristically virulent) Q124: The systemic mycoses include all of the following EXCEPT: A) Coccidioidomycosis B) Histoplasmosis C) Candidiasis D)

Microsporum C) Epidermophyton D) All show both ✅ Correct Answer: C) Epidermophyton Q102: In Trichophyton infection, the LPCB preparation shows: A) Abundant macroconidia and rare microconidia B) Rare macroconidia and abundant microconidia C) Both are absent D) Macroconidia only ✅ Correct Answer: B) Rare macroconidia and abundant microconidia Q103: Macroconidia of Microsporum are characterized by being: A) Thin-walled, smooth, and rare B) Smooth-walled and numerous C) Thick-walled, rough, and numerous D) Completely absent ✅ Correct Answer: C) Thick-walled, rough, and numerous Q104: Hair perforation test is performed to differentiate: A) M. canis from M. gypseum B) T. rubrum from T. mentagrophytes C) E. floccosum from T. rubrum D) M. audouinii from T. tonsurans ✅ Correct Answer: B) T. rubrum from T. mentagrophytes Q105: Urease test is carried out to differentiate: A) M. audouinii from M. canis B) T. mentagrophytes from T. rubrum C) E. floccosum from M. gypseum D) T. tonsurans from T. violaceum ✅ Correct Answer: B) T. mentagrophytes from T. rubrum Q106: Growth on rice grains test is useful to differentiate: A) T. rubrum from T. mentagrophytes B) E. floccosum from M. gypseum C) M. canis from M. audouinii D) T. violaceum from T. schoenleinii ✅ Correct Answer: C) M. canis from M. audouinii

Q85: Dermatophytes infect only: A) Heart, lungs, and liver B) Superficial keratinized structures such as skin, hair, and nails C) Brain and bones D) Gastrointestinal tract ✅ Correct Answer: B) Superficial keratinized structures such as skin, hair, and nails Q86: Which genus of dermatophytes causes infection of hair, skin, AND nails? A) Microsporum B) Epidermophyton C) Trichophyton D) Malassezia ✅ Correct Answer: C) Trichophyton Q87: Microsporum causes infection of: A) Hair, skin, and nails B) Skin and nails only C) Hair and skin only D) Nails only ✅ Correct Answer: C) Hair and skin only Q88: Epidermophyton causes infection of: A) Hair, skin, and nails B) Skin and nails, but NOT hair C) Hair only D) Skin only ✅ Correct Answer: B) Skin and nails, but NOT hair Q89: Dermatophytes that are typically adapted to live on human host and transmitted from human to human are called: A) Zoophilic B) Geophilic C) Anthropophilic D) Saprophytic ✅ Correct Answer: C) Anthropophilic Q90: Examples of Anthropophilic dermatophytes include: A) Trichophyton violaceum and Microsporum canis B) Microsporum gypseum and Trichophyton ajelloi C) Trichophyton rubrum, Microsporum audouinii, and Epidermophyton floccosum D) Coccidioides immitis and Histoplasma capsulatum ✅ Correct Answer: C) Trichophyton rubrum, Microsporum audouinii, and Epidermophyton floccosum Q91: Dermatophytes that live on animals and are transmitted from infected animals to humans are called: A) Anthropophilic B) Geophilic C) Zoophilic D) Saprophytic ✅ Correct Answer: C) Zoophilic Q92: Examples of Zoophilic dermatophytes include: A) T. rubrum and E. floccosum B) T. violaceum and M. canis C) M. gypseum and T. ajelloi D) T. tonsurans and T. schoenleinii ✅ Correct Answer: B) T. violaceum and M. canis Q93: Saprophytic fungi found in soil or dead organic substances are called: A) Anthropophilic B) Zoophilic C) Geophilic D) Pathogenic ✅ Correct Answer: C) Geophilic Q94: Dermatophytid (id) reaction occurs as a result of: A) Direct fungal invasion of secondary lesions B) Hypersensitivity response to circulating fungal antigen; these lesions do NOT contain fungal hyphae C) Secondary bacterial infection D) Low cell-mediated immunity ✅ Correct Answer: B) Hypersensitivity response to circulating fungal antigen; these lesions do NOT contain fungal hyphae Q95: Ectothrix infection is characterized by: A) Arthrospores found entirely within the hair shaft B) Presence of a layer of arthrospores on the surface of hair shaft C) Sparse hyphal growth with air spaces within hair shaft D) It does not affect hair ✅ Correct Answer: B) Presence of a layer of arthrospores on the surface of hair shaft Q96: Ectothrix infection is caused by: A) T. tonsurans and T. violaceum B) T. violaceum, T. schoenleinii, and M. gypseum C) M. audouinii, M. canis, and T. mentagrophytes D) T. rubrum and E. floccosum ✅ Correct Answer: C) M. audouinii, M. canis, and T. mentagrophytes Q97: Endothrix infection is characterized by: A) Arthrospores on the surface of hair shaft B) Nodules containing asci C) Clusters of arthrospores found entirely WITHIN the hair shaft D) Air spaces within hair shaft ✅ Correct Answer: C) Clusters of arthrospores found entirely WITHIN the hair shaft Q98: Endothrix infection is caused by: A) M. audouinii and M. canis B) T. tonsurans, T. violaceum, and T. schoenleinii C) T. rubrum and E. floccosum D) M. gypseum and T. ajelloi ✅ Correct Answer: B) T. tonsurans, T. violaceum, and T. schoenleinii Q99: Favus is characterized by: A) Arthrospores on surface of hair shaft B) Arthrospores inside hair shaft only C) Sparse hyphal growth and formation of air spaces within hair shaft D) Does not affect hair ✅ Correct Answer: C) Sparse hyphal growth and formation of air spaces within hair shaft Q100: Clinical specimens for dermatophyte culture are incubated at: A) 37°C for 1 week B) 25-30°C for 3 weeks C) 42°C for 2 days D) 4°C for 1 month ✅ Correct Answer: B) 25-30°C for 3 weeks Q101: In LPCB preparation, which genus shows ONLY macroconidia with ABSENT microconidia? A) Trichophyton B)

Q68: Pityriasis versicolor is caused by: A) Trichosporon beigelli B) Exophiala werneckii C) Malassezia furfur D) Piedraia hortae ✅ Correct Answer: C) Malassezia furfur Q69: Malassezia furfur requires which substance for growth in culture? A) Blood B) Fatty acids (SDA overlayed with olive oil) C) Cycloheximide D) Low temperature ✅ Correct Answer: B) Fatty acids (SDA overlayed with olive oil) Q70: On incubation at 37°C, M. furfur produces colonies within: A) 1-2 days B) 5-7 days C) 2-3 weeks D) 1 month ✅ Correct Answer: B) 5-7 days Q71: The characteristic microscopic appearance of M. furfur in KOH preparation is: A) Asteroid bodies B) "Spaghetti and meatballs" C) Mickey Mouse head D) Pilot wheel ✅ Correct Answer: B) "Spaghetti and meatballs" Q72: Lesions of Pityriasis versicolor appear as: A) Painful red spots B) Draining ulcers C) Hypopigmented macular lesions with minor scaling or itching D) Subcutaneous swelling ✅ Correct Answer: C) Hypopigmented macular lesions with minor scaling or itching Q73: Pityriasis versicolor occurs most frequently in: A) Cold and dry weather B) Hot and humid weather C) Winter only D) It has no relation to weather ✅ Correct Answer: B) Hot and humid weather Q74: In the diagnosis of Pityriasis versicolor, culture is: A) The gold standard B) Not carried out routinely C) The only method used D) Done before microscopy ✅ Correct Answer: B) Not carried out routinely Q75: Tinea nigra is caused by: A) Malassezia furfur B) Exophiala werneckii C) Trichosporon beigelli D) Piedraia hortae ✅ Correct Answer: B) Exophiala werneckii Q76: Cladosporium werneckii (Exophiala werneckii) is a dimorphic fungus that produces: A) Chitin only B) Melanin C) Ergosterol only D) Aflatoxin ✅ Correct Answer: B) Melanin Q77: Lesions of Tinea nigra appear as: A) White patches on the face B) Well-demarcated brown-black macular lesions most commonly on palms and soles C) Red vesicles on the trunk D) Oral ulcers ✅ Correct Answer: B) Well-demarcated brown-black macular lesions most commonly on palms and soles Q78: Black piedra is caused by: A) Trichosporon beigelli B) Malassezia furfur C) Piedraia hortae D) Exophiala werneckii ✅ Correct Answer: C) Piedraia hortae Q79: Black piedra mainly affects: A) Skin of the trunk B) Nails C) Shaft of hairs of beard and scalp D) Oral mucosa ✅ Correct Answer: C) Shaft of hairs of beard and scalp Q80: Laboratory diagnosis of Black piedra is made by demonstration of: A) Spaghetti and meatballs in KOH B) Nodules containing asci with spindle-shaped ascospores in 10% KOH mount of hair C) Asteroid bodies in pus D) Encapsulated yeast cells in CSF ✅ Correct Answer: B) Nodules containing asci with spindle-shaped ascospores in 10% KOH mount of hair Q81: White piedra is caused by: A) Piedraia hortae B) Malassezia furfur C) Trichosporon beigelli D) Exophiala werneckii ✅ Correct Answer: C) Trichosporon beigelli Q82: Trichosporon beigelli on SDA produces colonies that are initially: A) Black and shiny B) Green-colored, subsequently becoming yellowish gray and wrinkled C) Creamy white and smooth D) Brown-red ✅ Correct Answer: B) Green-colored, subsequently becoming yellowish gray and wrinkled Q83: Microscopic examination of Trichosporon beigelli colony shows: A) Spherules with endospores B) Tuberculate macroconidia C) Septate hyphae that break to form arthroconidia, which develop to blastoconidia D) Pseudohyphae with chlamydospores ✅ Correct Answer: C) Septate hyphae that break to form arthroconidia, which develop to blastoconidia Q84: Which organism causes White piedra? A) Piedraia hortae B) Malassezia furfur C) Trichosporon beigelli D) Exophiala werneckii ✅ Correct Answer: C) Trichosporon beigelli

Q52: Laboratory diagnosis of fungal infections depends on all of the following EXCEPT: A) Direct microscopy B) Culture C) Serological tests D) Antibiotic sensitivity testing ✅ Correct Answer: D) Antibiotic sensitivity testing Q53: The most commonly used medium for fungal culture is: A) Blood agar B) MacConkey agar C) Sabouraud's Dextrose Agar (SDA) D) Chocolate agar ✅ Correct Answer: C) Sabouraud's Dextrose Agar (SDA) Q54: Chloramphenicol and cycloheximide are added to SDA medium to: A) Stimulate fungal growth B) Inhibit bacterial growth and facilitate appearance of slow-growing fungi C) Change colony color D) Stimulate capsule production ✅ Correct Answer: B) Inhibit bacterial growth and facilitate appearance of slow-growing fungi Q55: Use of 10% KOH in direct microscopy of fungal specimens: A) Stains fungi red B) Dissolves tissue material, leaving the alkali-resistant fungi intact C) Inhibits fungal growth D) Stimulates fungal sporulation ✅ Correct Answer: B) Dissolves tissue material, leaving the alkali-resistant fungi intact Q56: Calcofluor dye is a fluorescent dye that: A) Stains the capsule specifically B) Combines with fungal cell wall and is useful for identification of fungi in tissue specimens C) Is a modified Gram stain D) Stains only the nucleus ✅ Correct Answer: B) Combines with fungal cell wall and is useful for identification of fungi in tissue specimens Q57: Methenamine silver stain is useful for: A) Demonstrating capsule in CSF B) Staining Candida in urine C) Demonstration of fungi in tissues D) Detecting arthrospores in hair ✅ Correct Answer: C) Demonstration of fungi in tissues Q58: India ink preparation is used to demonstrate: A) Arthrospores of C. immitis in sputum B) White capsule of Cryptococcus neoformans in CSF C) Pseudohyphae of Candida in blood D) Spherules of Histoplasma in tissues ✅ Correct Answer: B) White capsule of Cryptococcus neoformans in CSF Q59: Gram staining in mycology is useful to demonstrate: A) Capsule of Cryptococcus B) Gram-positive Candida species C) Arthrospores of Dermatophytes D) Hyphae of Aspergillus ✅ Correct Answer: B) Gram-positive Candida species Q60: Microscopy of fungal colonies is carried out in: A) India ink B) KOH 10% C) Lactophenol Cotton Blue (LPCB) mount D) Gram stain ✅ Correct Answer: C) Lactophenol Cotton Blue (LPCB) mount Q61: Mannan antigen detection is most widely used in the diagnosis of: A) Aspergillosis B) Cryptococcosis C) Candidiasis D) Histoplasmosis ✅ Correct Answer: C) Candidiasis Q62: Galactomannan is found in the cell walls of all species of: A) Candida B) Aspergillus C) Cryptococcus D) Mucor ✅ Correct Answer: B) Aspergillus Q63: Latex agglutination test is used to demonstrate polysaccharide capsular antigen of: A) Candida albicans in blood B) Aspergillus fumigatus in sputum C) Cryptococcus neoformans in CSF D) Histoplasma capsulatum in bone marrow ✅ Correct Answer: C) Cryptococcus neoformans in CSF Q64: Gas liquid chromatography is used to quantify arabinitol for diagnosis of: A) Aspergillus fumigatus infections B) Cryptococcus neoformans infections C) Candida albicans infections D) Histoplasma capsulatum infections ✅ Correct Answer: C) Candida albicans infections Q65: The earliest serological test used in fungal diagnosis is: A) ELISA B) Western blot C) Complement fixation test D) Latex agglutination ✅ Correct Answer: C) Complement fixation test Q66: Demonstration of antigen in serum, CSF, and urine indicates: A) Old resolved infection B) Recent or active infection C) Immunity against fungi D) Test error ✅ Correct Answer: B) Recent or active infection Q67: Fungal colony is identified by all of the following EXCEPT: A) Rapidity of growth B) Color and morphology of the colony C) Pigmentation at the reverse D) Antibiotic sensitivity pattern ✅ Correct Answer: D) Antibiotic sensitivity pattern

Q37: Most fungi are: A) Obligate anaerobes B) Obligate aerobes or facultative anaerobes C) Obligate aerobes only D) Facultative anaerobes only ✅ Correct Answer: B) Obligate aerobes or facultative anaerobes Q38: Which fungus is an exception and forms part of the normal human flora? A) Aspergillus fumigatus B) Cryptococcus neoformans C) Candida albicans D) Histoplasma capsulatum ✅ Correct Answer: C) Candida albicans Q39: Fungal infection that occurs in immunocompromised hosts is called: A) Systemic mycosis B) Opportunistic mycosis C) Subcutaneous mycosis D) Superficial mycosis ✅ Correct Answer: B) Opportunistic mycosis Q40: The effects of fungi on humans can be grouped into how many major ways? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 ✅ Correct Answer: B) 3 Q41: Which type of immunity is MOST important in conferring protection against fungi? A) Humoral immunity B) Cell-mediated immunity (CMI) C) Innate immunity only D) IgE antibodies ✅ Correct Answer: B) Cell-mediated immunity (CMI) Q42: Suppression of cell-mediated immunity leads to: A) Better resistance to fungi B) Reactivation and dissemination of asymptomatic fungal infection C) Improvement in IgG function D) Increased macrophage activity ✅ Correct Answer: B) Reactivation and dissemination of asymptomatic fungal infection Q43: Humoral immunity against fungi is mediated by production of: A) T cells B) NK cells C) IgG and IgM antibodies D) B cells only ✅ Correct Answer: C) IgG and IgM antibodies Q44: Ingestion of Amanita mushrooms causes liver necrosis due to presence of two fungal toxins: A) Aflatoxin and Phalloidin B) Amanitin and Phalloidin C) Amanitin and Aflatoxin D) Ergotamine and Amanitin ✅ Correct Answer: B) Amanitin and Phalloidin Q45: Amanitin inhibits: A) DNA polymerase B) RNA polymerase that synthesizes cellular mRNA C) Ribosome D) Protease ✅ Correct Answer: B) RNA polymerase that synthesizes cellular mRNA Q46: Ingestion of peanuts and grains contaminated with Aspergillus flavus causes liver cancer due to: A) Amanitin B) Phalloidin C) Aflatoxin D) Ergotamine ✅ Correct Answer: C) Aflatoxin Q47: Inhalation of spores of Aspergillus fumigatus can cause: A) Liver cancer B) Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis C) Cryptococcal meningitis D) Tinea versicolor ✅ Correct Answer: B) Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis Q48: Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis is a/an: A) IgG-mediated response B) IgM-mediated response C) IgA-mediated response D) IgE-mediated immediate hypersensitivity response ✅ Correct Answer: D) IgE-mediated immediate hypersensitivity response Q49: The habitat of Cryptococcus is: A) Human body B) Soil (pigeon feces) C) Fresh water D) Decaying plants ✅ Correct Answer: B) Soil (pigeon feces) Q50: The portal of entry of Aspergillus into the human body is: A) Through wounds B) Through contaminated food C) Inhalation of conidia into lungs D) Through animal contact ✅ Correct Answer: C) Inhalation of conidia into lungs Q51: Clinical manifestations of hypersensitivity pneumonitis include all EXCEPT: A) Rhinitis B) Bronchial asthma C) Alveolitis D) Liver necrosis ✅ Correct Answer: D) Liver necrosis

immitis C) Aspergillus fumigatus D) Sporothrix schenckii ✅ Correct Answer: C) Aspergillus fumigatus Q24: Examples of dimorphic fungi include all of the following EXCEPT: A) Coccidioides immitis B) Paracoccidioides brasiliensis C) Cryptococcus neoformans D) Blastomyces dermatitidis ✅ Correct Answer: C) Cryptococcus neoformans Q25: Sexual spores in fungi are of how many types? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 ✅ Correct Answer: B) 3 Q26: Ascospores are formed in a sac called: A) Basidium B) Sporangium C) Ascus D) Conidiophore ✅ Correct Answer: C) Ascus Q27: Basidiospores are formed: A) Inside a sac called ascus B) Inside a sporangium C) Outside on the tip of a pedestal called basidium D) By fragmentation of hyphae ✅ Correct Answer: C) Outside on the tip of a pedestal called basidium Q28: Zygospores are characterized by being: A) Small and numerous B) Single, large spores with thick wall C) Formed inside an ascus D) Found on the tip of basidium ✅ Correct Answer: B) Single, large spores with thick wall Q29: Asexual spores in fungi are produced by: A) Meiosis B) Mitosis C) Fertilization D) Conjugation ✅ Correct Answer: B) Mitosis Q30: Arthrospores are formed by: A) Budding from parent cells B) Rounding and thickening of hyphal segments C) Fragmentation of the ends of hyphae → rectangular thick-walled spores D) Formation inside a sac ✅ Correct Answer: C) Fragmentation of the ends of hyphae → rectangular thick-walled spores Q31: Arthrospores are the infective stage of: A) Candida albicans B) Cryptococcus neoformans C) Coccidioides immitis D) Histoplasma capsulatum ✅ Correct Answer: C) Coccidioides immitis Q32: Terminal chlamydospores help in the identification of: A) Aspergillus fumigatus B) Cryptococcus neoformans C) Candida albicans D) Histoplasma capsulatum ✅ Correct Answer: C) Candida albicans Q33: Blastospores are formed by: A) Fragmentation of hyphae B) Budding process from parent cells such as yeast C) Rounding and thickening of hyphal segments D) Formation inside sporangium ✅ Correct Answer: B) Budding process from parent cells such as yeast Q34: Pseudohyphae are: A) True hyphae with septa B) Elongated yeast that resemble hyphae morphologically but are not true hyphae C) Hyphae without nuclei D) Hyphae of Zygomycetes ✅ Correct Answer: B) Elongated yeast that resemble hyphae morphologically but are not true hyphae Q35: Sporangiospores are formed inside a sac called sporangium, which develops at the ends of hyphae called sporangiophores. Examples include: A) Aspergillus and Penicillium B) Mucor and Rhizopus C) Candida and Cryptococcus D) Histoplasma and Blastomyces ✅ Correct Answer: B) Mucor and Rhizopus Q36: Macroconidia are characterized by being: A) Small and unicellular B) Large, aseptate, often multicellular conidia C) Formed inside sporangium D) Formed by budding ✅ Correct Answer: B) Large, aseptate, often multicellular conidia

Q1: The term "Mycology" is derived from the word "mykos" which means: A) Parasite B) Mushroom C) Bacteria D) Virus ✅ Correct Answer: B) Mushroom Q2: Fungi are classified as: A) Prokaryotic organisms B) Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic C) Eukaryotic organisms D) Non-cellular organisms ✅ Correct Answer: C) Eukaryotic organisms Q3: The approximate diameter of fungi is: A) 1 µm B) 4 µm C) 10 µm D) 20 µm ✅ Correct Answer: B) 4 µm Q4: The cell wall of fungi primarily contains: A) Peptidoglycan B) Cellulose C) Murein D) Chitin ✅ Correct Answer: D) Chitin Q5: The cell wall of bacteria primarily contains: A) Chitin B) Ergosterol C) Peptidoglycan D) Cellulose ✅ Correct Answer: C) Peptidoglycan Q6: Fungi are NOT sensitive to penicillin because: A) They have ergosterol in their membrane B) Their cell wall contains chitin instead of peptidoglycan C) They are eukaryotic organisms D) They have mitochondria ✅ Correct Answer: B) Their cell wall contains chitin instead of peptidoglycan Q7: Chitin is a polysaccharide consisting of long chains of: A) Glucose B) Fructose C) N-acetylglucosamine D) Galactose ✅ Correct Answer: C) N-acetylglucosamine Q8: Beta-glucan in the fungal cell wall is the target of the antifungal drug: A) Fluconazole B) Amphotericin B C) Caspofungin D) Ketoconazole ✅ Correct Answer: C) Caspofungin Q9: The cell membrane of fungi contains: A) Cholesterol B) Ergosterol C) Testosterone D) Sitosterol ✅ Correct Answer: B) Ergosterol Q10: The cell membrane of human cells contains: A) Ergosterol B) Sitosterol C) Cholesterol D) Lanosterol ✅ Correct Answer: C) Cholesterol Q11: Antifungal agents such as Amphotericin B, Fluconazole, and Ketoconazole have selective action on fungi due to: A) Presence of chitin in fungal cell wall B) Presence of peptidoglycan in fungal cell wall C) Difference in membrane sterols (ergosterol in fungi vs. cholesterol in humans) D) Presence of mitochondria in fungi ✅ Correct Answer: C) Difference in membrane sterols (ergosterol in fungi vs. cholesterol in humans) Q12: Fungi are placed in the phylum: A) Thallophyta B) Bryophyta C) Pteridophyta D) Spermatophyta ✅ Correct Answer: A) Thallophyta Q13: The four classes of fungi in taxonomical classification are: A) Yeasts, Molds, Dimorphic, Imperfect B) Zygomycetes, Ascomycetes, Basidiomycetes, Deuteromycetes C) Superficial, Cutaneous, Subcutaneous, Systemic D) Anthropophilic, Zoophilic, Geophilic, Saprophytic ✅ Correct Answer: B) Zygomycetes, Ascomycetes, Basidiomycetes, Deuteromycetes Q14: Fungi that do NOT produce sexual spores are called: A) Ascomycetes B) Basidiomycetes C) Fungi Imperfecti (Deuteromycetes) D) Zygomycetes ✅ Correct Answer: C) Fungi Imperfecti (Deuteromycetes) Q15: Yeasts reproduce by: A) Sexual sporulation B) Asexual budding C) Binary fission D) Conjugation ✅ Correct Answer: B) Asexual budding Q16: An example of a true yeast is: A) Candida albicans B) Aspergillus fumigatus C) Cryptococcus neoformans D) Rhizopus ✅ Correct Answer: C) Cryptococcus neoformans Q17: Candida albicans is morphologically classified as: A) True yeast B) Yeast-like fungi C) Mold D) Dimorphic fungi ✅ Correct Answer: B) Yeast-like fungi Q18: The width of hyphae in molds is approximately: A) 1-2 µm B) 2-10 µm C) 10-20 µm D) 20-30 µm ✅ Correct Answer: B) 2-10 µm Q19: Nonseptate hyphae are characterized by being: A) Uninucleated B) Multinucleated C) Anucleated D) Binucleated only ✅ Correct Answer: B) Multinucleated Q20: The part of mycelium that projects above the surface in culture medium is called: A) Vegetative mycelium B) Aerial mycelium C) Substrate mycelium D) Rhizoid ✅ Correct Answer: B) Aerial mycelium Q21: Dimorphic fungi exist as hyphal/mycelial forms at: A) 37°C in soil B) 22-25°C in soil and culture C) 4°C in culture D) 42°C in tissue ✅ Correct Answer: B) 22-25°C in soil and culture Q22: Dimorphic fungi occur as yeasts or other structures in human tissue at: A) 22-25°C B) 4°C C) 37°C D) 42°C ✅ Correct Answer: C) 37°C Q23: Which of the following is NOT a dimorphic fungus? A) Histoplasma capsulatum B) Coccidioides

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