Anesthesia And ICU lectures

اذا اكو محاضرات معينة لاي مرحلة تحبون نسوي اسئلة عليها، ارسلوها على الخاص وارجو نشر رابط القناة لتعم الفائدة للجميع، موفقين جميعا يارب https://t.me/Anesthesiaiculectures

الاسئلة مبنية على مستوى شرح المحاضرات ودا احاول نشمل المحاضرات المهمة للامتحان لمختلف المراحل.اذا شفنا دتكدرون تحلوها بسهولة فهذا شي جيد وممكن نصعد بالصعوبة اكثر.. احتاج اسمع منكم بالتوفيق الكم وناجحين كلتكم ان شاء الله

اسس تخدير مرحلة ثانية Laryngospasm and bronchospasm اسئلة مع الاجوبة

3. Ventilation in burn patient (which one is true): a) Intermittent positive pressure ventilation b) Lower FiO2 needed c) Lower PEEP needed d) Spontaneous ventilation e) Oxygen consumption is decreased 7. Transversus Abdominis Plane (TAP) Block 1. TAP block (all true except one): a) Multiple injections are usually required b) Ultrasound-guided TAP block has improved accuracy c) The aim is to deposit local anesthetic between the external oblique and transversus abdominis muscles d) Bilateral blocks can be given for midline incisions or laparoscopic surgery e) Give good analgesia after caesarean section 2. Indications of TAP block (all true except one): a) Appendectomy b) Hernia repair c) Caesarean section d) Breast surgery e) Prostatectomy 3. Ultrasound-guided TAP (all true except one): a) Allows accurate deposition of local anesthetic in the correct neurovascular plane b) Catheter can be introduced for prolonged analgesia c) Better than blind TAP d) Local anesthetic bolus is 20ml e) Not used in caesarean section 4. Anatomy innervation of the anterolateral abdominal wall arises from spinal nerves T7 to L1 (all true except one): a) Intercostal nerves b) Subcostal nerve c) Iliopsoas nerve d) Iliohypogastric nerve e) Ilioinguinal nerves 8. Massive Blood Transfusion and Sickle Cell Anemia 1. Massive blood transfusion (all true except one): a) Transfusion of half of the blood volume within 3 hrs b) For adults ~ 5 units = 2.5 L c) Transfusion equal to or more than one blood volume within 24 hr d) Transfusion of blood at a rate of 150 ml/hr e) Tissue hypoxia 2. One of the following is not a complication of massive transfusion: a) Hypothermia b) Hypokalemia c) Hypocalcemia d) Metabolic acidosis e) Air embolism 3. All the following are effects of anemia except one: a) Fatigue b) Dyspnea on exertion c) Decreased cardiac output d) Palpitations e) Tachycardia 4. Anesthetic management in sickle cell anemia patient (all true except one): a) Preoperative folic acid has been suggested b) Apart from tourniquets that cause tissue ischemia c) Preoxygenation and FiO2 of 50% reduce risk of hypoxemia d) Prophylactic bicarbonate administration has been suggested e) Patients are generally considered suitable for most day-case surgery 5. All the following should be prevented at all times perioperatively except one: a) Hypoxemia b) Dehydration c) Hypothermia d) Acidosis e) Deep anesthesia 9. Hypertension and Anesthesia 1. Causes of hypertension during anesthesia (all true except one): a) Inadequate paralysis b) Underlying hypertensive disease c) Hypoxia d) Hypercapnia e) Propofol 2. Regarding hypertension (all true except one): a) Mild if systolic 140–159 mmHg; diastolic 90–99 mmHg b) The major cause is secondary to adrenal disorders c) Caffeine and smoking increase BP d) Is termed primary or ‘essential’, i.e., has no apparent cause e) Grade 3 if systolic ≥ 180 mmHg; diastolic ≥ 110 mmHg

مجموعة اسئلة حسب كل موضوع موجود في محاضراتكم بناءا على رغبة الطلاب ⬆️⬆️

MCQs: ICU Techniques (4th Stage) Assessment of Critically Ill Patients Which system is activated first in severe illness? a) Parasympathetic nervous system b) Sympathetic nervous system c) Endocrine system d) Muscular system Answer: b What’s the most reliable early sign of poor tissue perfusion? a) Cyanosis b) Oliguria c) Bradycardia d) Altered mental state Answer: d A pre-terminal patient typically shows what heart rate? a) Tachycardia b) Tachypnea c) Bradycardia d) High blood pressure Answer: c What airway finding is most dangerous? a) Gurgling b) Silent chest c) Wheeze d) Tachypnea Answer: b ICU Admission & Discharge Criteria 5. What is the most common type of ICU shock? a) Cardiogenic shock b) Hypovolemic shock c) Distributive (septic) shock d) Obstructive shock Answer: c Which endocrine emergency requires ICU admission? a) Severe DKA b) Hyperthyroidism c) Hypertension d) Hypernatremia Answer: a Ongoing vasopressor support is a sign to: a) Discharge the patient b) Keep the patient in ICU c) Start oral medications d) Transfer to ward Answer: b Patient Monitoring 8. What device measures oxygen saturation? a) Capnograph b) Pulse oximeter c) Sphygmomanometer d) ECG Answer: b Which monitor is best for continuous BP? a) Sphygmomanometer b) Arterial line c) ECG d) Pulse oximeter Answer: b What gas does capnography measure? a) Oxygen b) Nitrogen c) End-tidal CO₂ d) CVP Answer: c Name one basic ICU monitoring parameter. a) CVP b) Oxygenation c) EEG d) Swan-Ganz catheter Answer: b Central Venous Pressure (CVP) 12. CVP is measured at the: a) Carotid artery b) Right atrium c) Left atrium d) Femoral vein Answer: b Dominant v wave in CVP waveform suggests: a) Tricuspid regurgitation b) Complete heart block c) Pulmonary embolism d) Cardiac tamponade Answer: a Low CVP can be caused by: a) Pericardial effusion b) Hypovolemia c) Right ventricular failure d) Tricuspid stenosis Answer: b ECG and Rhythm 15. What is the normal sinus rhythm range? a) 40-60 bpm b) 60-100 bpm c) 100-140 bpm d) >140 bpm Answer: b Atrial flutter has what ECG pattern? a) P waves b) Sawtooth pattern c) ST elevation d) Wide QRS complex Answer: b Bradycardia is a heart rate below: a) 50 bpm b) 60 bpm c) 70 bpm d) 100 bpm Answer: b What does ventricular fibrillation look like on ECG? a) Organized wide QRS complexes b) No discernible waves or regular rhythm c) Regular sawtooth pattern d) Narrow, rapid complexes Answer: b Defibrillation 19. First step when defibrillation is needed? a) Check equipment b) Apply oxygen c) Start CPR d) Deliver the shock immediately Answer: c Rhythm that requires defibrillation? a) Asystole b) Pulseless VT c) Bradycardia d) PEA Answer: b Common complication of defibrillation? a) Skin burns b) DVT c) Pulmonary edema d) Infection Answer: a Recommended biphasic shock energy (first shock in adults)? a) 100 J b) 150-200 J c) 300 J d) 360 J Answer: b

1. B 2. B 3. D 4. A 5. B 6. C 7. B 8. D 9. C 10. A 11. D 12. B 13. A 14. C 15. D 16. A 17. A 18. C 19. B 20. A 21. D 22. A

1. B 2. C 3. C 4. B 5. B 6. B 7. C 8. C 9. C 10. C

1. A 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. C 6. B 7. C 8. C 9. B 10. B

ICU MCQ⬇️ 1. What is the normal range for central venous pressure (CVP)? A. 0-5 mmHg B. 5-10 mmHg C. 10-15 mmHg D. 15-20 mmHg 2. What does a high central venous pressure (CVP) typically indicate? A. Hypovolemia B. Heart failure C. Sepsis D. Pulmonary embolism 3. Which of the following is used to monitor the severity of ARDS (Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome)? A. PaCO2 B. Chest X-ray C. Electrocardiogram (ECG) D. ABG (Arterial Blood Gas) 4. In ICU, what is the main concern in patients with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 8 or less? A. Respiratory failure B. Neurological deterioration C. Cardiac arrest D. Sepsis 5. What is the recommended initial setting for mechanical ventilation in a patient with ARDS? A. High tidal volume, low PEEP B. Low tidal volume, high PEEP C. High tidal volume, high PEEP D. Low tidal volume, low PEEP 6. Which of the following is a contraindication for non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (NIPPV)? A. Acute respiratory failure B. Severe COPD exacerbation C. Severe facial trauma D. Hypoxemic respiratory failure 7. What is the first-line treatment for shock in an ICU patient? A. Vasodilators B. Fluid resuscitation C. Sedation D. Diuretics 8. Which of the following monitoring techniques is essential for detecting early signs of sepsis in an ICU setting? A. Blood pressure monitoring B. Temperature monitoring C. Cardiac output measurement D. Urine output monitoring 9. In a patient with acute kidney injury (AKI), which of the following is the most appropriate initial management? A. Dialysis B. Fluid restriction C. Intravenous fluid resuscitation D. Diuretics 10. What is the most common cause of ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)? A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa B. Streptococcus pneumoniae C. Escherichia coli D. Staphylococcus aureus 11. What is the recommended FiO2 (Fraction of Inspired Oxygen) for a patient with severe hypoxemia in ICU? A. 0.21-0.40 B. 0.40-0.60 C. 0.60-0.80 D. 0.80-1.00 12. In a patient with suspected pulmonary embolism (PE), which diagnostic tool is most commonly used? A. Chest X-ray B. CT pulmonary angiography C. Ventilation-perfusion scan D. Echocardiography 13. What is the goal of a tight glucose control protocol in ICU patients? A. To avoid hyperglycemia B. To reduce the risk of infection C. To improve patient recovery D. To reduce the risk of hypoglycemia 14. In ICU, which of the following is the most commonly used drug for sedation in intubated patients? A. Morphine B. Midazolam C. Propofol D. Fentanyl 15. What is a primary indication for the use of norepinephrine in ICU patients? A. Acute pain B. Shock C. Sepsis D. All of the above 16. What is the best initial treatment for a patient with acute respiratory failure and high CO2 levels? A. Non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (NIPPV) B. Intravenous corticosteroids C. High-flow oxygen D. Endotracheal intubation 17. Which of the following is a potential complication of prolonged mechanical ventilation? A. Barotrauma B. Pulmonary embolism C. Hypernatremia D. Hypokalemia 18. What is the main risk of administering large volumes of crystalloid fluids in ICU patients? A. Hyperkalemia B. Hypotension C. Fluid overload D. Hypoglycemia 19. In ICU, what is the most important aspect of preventing pressure ulcers in immobile patients? A. Early ambulation B. Regular turning C. Using high-dose antibiotics D. Administering corticosteroids 20. What is the typical treatment for an ICU patient with acute pancreatitis? A. Aggressive fluid resuscitation and pain management B. Antibiotic therapy C. Surgical drainage D. Corticosteroids 21. What is the target mean arterial pressure (MAP) in a septic shock patient? A. 40 mmHg B. 50 mmHg C. 60 mmHg D. 70 mmHg 22. What is the most common cause of ICU delirium? A. Sedative medications B. Hypoxia C. Electrolyte imbalances D. Infections

1. Which of the following is a non-depolarizing muscle relaxant? A. Succinylcholine B. Rocuronium C. Propofol D. Fentanyl 2. The minimum oxygen concentration that should be delivered during general anesthesia is: A. 10% B. 21% C. 30% D. 100% 3. What is the most appropriate action if the reservoir bag in the circuit is not filling properly? A. Increase the volatile agent B. Turn off oxygen C. Check for leaks in the system D. Add more anesthetic gas 4. The pin index safety system is used to: A. Calibrate vaporizers B. Prevent connection of wrong gas cylinders C. Measure gas concentration D. Adjust flowmeter accuracy 5. In anesthesia, MAC stands for: A. Maximum allowable concentration B. Minimum alveolar concentration C. Mean airway concentration D. Muscle activity concentration 6. Which of the following is the most common opioid used intraoperatively? A. Morphine B. Fentanyl C. Codeine D. Naloxone 7. A pulse oximeter measures: A. Blood pressure B. Blood glucose C. Oxygen saturation D. Carbon dioxide levels 8. The correct size of a laryngoscope blade for an average adult is: A. Size 0 B. Size 1 C. Size 3 or 4 D. Size 6 9. What is the first thing to check if a patient suddenly desaturates during anesthesia? A. ECG B. Vaporizer C. Airway patency D. Surgical field 10. Which of the following is used to reverse non-depolarizing muscle relaxants? A. Naloxone B. Flumazenil C. Neostigmine D. Succinylcholine

1. Which of the following gases is used as a carrier gas in general anesthesia? A. Nitrous oxide B. Carbon dioxide C. Helium D. Hydrogen 2. What is the purpose of the soda lime canister in a circle breathing system? A. Humidify inhaled gases B. Remove carbon dioxide C. Absorb oxygen D. Deliver anesthetic gases 3. Which of the following is a common complication of spinal anesthesia? A. Tachycardia B. Hypertension C. Hypotension D. Seizures 4. A BIS (Bispectral Index) monitor is used to measure: A. Muscle tone B. Depth of anesthesia C. Oxygen saturation D. Blood pressure 5. Halothane is known to cause which rare but serious complication? A. Bronchospasm B. Nephrotoxicity C. Malignant hyperthermia D. Bradycardia 6. Which piece of equipment is used to confirm endotracheal tube placement? A. ECG B. Capnograph C. Pulse oximeter D. Stethoscope only 7. During rapid sequence induction (RSI), which drug is most commonly used for muscle relaxation? A. Rocuronium B. Pancuronium C. Succinylcholine D. Vecuronium 8. An oxygen flowmeter is designed to be used with: A. Nitrous oxide only B. Medical air C. Oxygen only D. Any gas 9. Which of the following drugs is a reversal agent for opioids? A. Neostigmine B. Naloxone C. Flumazenil D. Atropine 10. What does a "fail-safe valve" do in an anesthesia machine? A. Prevents oxygen loss during power failure B. Blocks nitrous oxide flow if oxygen supply fails C. Measures tidal volume D. Adjusts vapor concentration