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01
Answer2810. #EXPLANATION Flail chest: ⦁ Occurs when several adjacent ribs are fractured in two places either on one side of the chest or either side of the sternum, the flat segment moves paradoxically, that is, inwards during inspiration and outwards during expiration (Paradoxical respiration). ⦁ Net result is poor oxygenation from injury to the underlying lung parenchyma and paradoxical movement of the flail segment. ⦁ If the segment is small and not embarrassing respiration local control of chest pain with good analgesia and regular blood gas analysis until the flail segment stabilizes. ⦁ In more severe cases endotracheal intubation with positive pressure ventilation for up to 3 weeks, until the fracture becomes less mobile. Ans. B. (IPPV with oral intubation)
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Answer2809. #EXPLANATION ⦁ All the choices in the given question can present with chest pain especially GERD can present with epigastric discomfort. ⦁ But none other than MI and pericarditis present with ECG changes ⦁ ECG changes in the given question are ST elevation Inferior leads which is typical of inferior wall MI. Ans. D. Inferior wall myocardial infarction
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Answer2808. #EXPLANATION Unsafe CSOM (atticoantral type) involves the posterosuperior part of middle ear cleft (attic, antrum, posterior tympanum and mastoid) and is associated with cholesteatoma, which, because of its bone eroding properties, causes risk of serious complications for this reason, the disease is also called unsafe or dangerous type. Surgical treatment is the mainstay in the management. Primary aim is to remove the disease and render the ear safe, and second in priority is to preserve the hearing but never at the cost of primary aim. Two types of surgical procedures are done to deal with cholesteatoma: ⦁ Canal wall down procedures and ⦁ Canal wall up procedures. Ans. D. Tympano-mastoid exploration
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Answer2806. #EXPLANATION Pelvic hematocele - may follow an instrumental delivery, a paracervical or pudendal block anaesthesia, vigorous ironing of the lower vagina and perineum during delivery or even rarely after a normal delivery. Retroverted gravid uterus - causes urinary retention at 12 weeks of gestations. ⦁ The patients treated with infertility most likely the incidence of ectopic pregnancy is much higher presents with amenorrhoea (75%), Abdominal pain (95%), vaginal bleeding, retention of urine ⦁ Retention of urine - In a subacute variety of ectopic pregnancy, the blood collects in pouch of Douglas to form a pelvic haematocele, this haematocele forms an irregular mass of differing consistency due to a mixture of clot and blood, and bulges forwards, displacing the cervix against the bladder and leading to retention of urine ⦁ Cervical fibroid [929-W- Myomas in the cervix or lower uterine segment may obstruct labour and may be confused with the fetal head. Ans. C. Pelvic haematocele
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Answer2807. #EXPLANATION ⦁ Moderate leukocytosis is characteristic of acute appendicitis, but a white blood count of 22,000/mm3 suggests either appendiceal rupture or some other diagnosis. ⦁ When an inflamed appendix lies posteriorly near the ureter, other white blood cells or red blood cells may be found in the urinary sediment. ⦁ Other studies are not usually required to establish a diagnosis of acute appendicitis. If an abdominal x-ray is done, a fecalith may be seen in the right lower quadrant, or nonspecific ileus may be present. ⦁ However, it is not unusual for the study to be entirely normal. Similarly, ultrasound examination mayor may not identify an inflammatory right lower quadrant mass. Ans. D. White blood count 22,000/mm3
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Answer2805. #EXPLANATION ⦁ The posterior tibial nerve innervates the sole of the foot. To perform a peroneal nerve block, 1 percent lidocaine is injected into the subcutaneous tissue lateral to the posterior tibial artery at the upper border of the medial malleolus. ⦁ None of the other nerves listed supply the plantar surface of the foot. ⦁ The saphenous nerve provides sensation to the skin over the medial malleolus. ⦁ The sural nerve supplies the lateral foot and fifth toe. ⦁ The superficial peroneal nerve innervates the dorsum of the foot and the other toes, except the adjacent sides of the first and second toes, which derive sensation from the deep peroneal nerve. Ans. C. Posterior tibial nerve
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Answer2804. #EXPLANATION Paracervical or ureteral nodes ⦁ The main routes of spread of cervical cancer include vaginal mucosa, myometrium, paracervical lymphatics, and direct extension into the parametrium. ⦁ The prevalence of lymph node disease correlates with the stage of malignancy Primary node groups involved in the spread of cervical cancer include the paracervical, parametrial, obturator, hypogastric, external iliac, and sacral nodes, essentially in that order. ⦁ Less commonly, there is involvement in the common iliac, inguinal, and paraaortic nodes. ⦁ In stage I, the pelvic nodes are positive in approximately 15% of cases and the paraaortic nodes in 6%. ⦁ In stage II, pelvic nodes are positive in 28% of cases and paraaortic nodes in 16%. In stage III, pelvic nodes are positive in 47% of cases and paraaortic nodes in 28%. Ans. D. Paracervical or ureteral nodes
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Answer2803. #EXPLANATION ⦁ Glucocorticoid & Mineralocorticoid are lifesaving hormones, so these should be replaced followed by other hormones. Adrenal insufficiency, hypothyroidism, and DI must be identified and treated before surgery to reduce the risk of intraoperative and postoperative complications. ⦁ Glucocorticoid (intravenous hydrocortisone or dexamethasone) administration at the time of surgery is a usual and appropriate neurosurgical practice (except in patients with Cushing disease who do not require an intraoperative steroid). ⦁ Steroid administration protocols differ among pituitary centers, but the general principle is to give a stress dose of a glucocorticoid at the time of surgery and for at least 24 hours afterward. ⦁ Because hospitalization for transsphenoidal surgery is short term (2–3 days), at discharge many patients are given oral steroid replacement therapy with plans for reevaluation after surgical recovery (usually 6–8 weeks postoperatively). In this situation the patient should be given a short-acting glucocorticoid, hydrocortisone, to minimize the suppression of endogenous ACTH. ⦁ Typically, the hydrocortisone therapy is discontinued 2 days before the postoperative visit and the serum levels of cortisol and ACTH are measured. The definitive test of ACTH reserve is the insulin hypoglycemia test, in which the patient is given a small dose of short-acting insulin to lower the blood glucose level to 40 mg/dl or less with sequential measurement of glucose and cortisol levels. ⦁ The normal response is a serum cortisol of 18 µg/dl or greater. Many patients have a GH deficiency both before and after surgery, and the definitive test of GH deficiency is the GH response to insulin-induced hypoglycemia. ⦁ Thus, this test serves to diagnose both an impaired ACTH reserve and a GH deficiency, and should be reserved for the postoperative evaluation. ⦁ Growth hormone replacement is beneficial in improving body composition (increase in muscle mass, decrease in adipose mass), muscle strength, exercise endurance, serum lipid level, and the patient's quality of life. Ans. A. Hydrocortisone.
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Answer2801. #EXPLANATION ⦁ Hungry bone syndrome refers to hypocalcemia following surgical correction of hyperparathyroidism in patients with severe, prolonged disease, as serum calcium is rapidly taken from the circulation and deposited into the bone. ⦁ Symptoms usually occur within 24–48 hours following parathyroidectomy, when calcium levels reach a nadir. Early symptoms include numbness and tingling in the perioral area, fingers, or toes. ⦁ Advanced symptoms include nervousness anxiety, and increased neuromuscular transmission evidenced by positive Chvostek’s and Trousseau’s signs, carpal pedal spasm, and hyperactive tendon reflexes. ⦁ In severe cases, one may develop a prolonged QT interval on ECG. Patients who manifest any signs or symptoms of hypocalcemia always require intervention. In severely symptomatic patients, treatment should begin with intravenous calcium gluconate. ⦁ Mildly symptomatic patients may be given oral calcium in the form of calcium lactate, calcium carbonate, or calcium gluconate. If hypocalcemia remains despite calcium supplementation, additional therapy with vitamin D may be needed. ⦁ Supplemental calcium and vitamin D therapy should be continued until serum calcium levels return to normal. Ans. C. Hypocalcemia due to hungry bone syndrome
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Answer2802. #EXPLANATION ⦁ The arterial supply of the vagina comes from the cervicovaginal branch of the uterine artery internal pudendal, inferior vesical, and middle hemorrhoidal arteries. ⦁ If the uterus is removed, neither the uterine nor ovarian arteries could be the source. Venous drainage of the vagina is accomplished through an extensive plexus rather than through well-defined channels. ⦁ The same is true of the surrounding venous drainage of the bladder. The lymphatic drainage is such that the superior portion of the vagina (along with the cervix) drains into the external iliac nodes, the middle portion into the internal iliac nodes, and the lower third mainly into the superficial inguinal nodes and internal iliac nodes (like the vulva). ⦁ The vagina is richly supplied with blood and lymphatics. Ans. A. Internal pudendal
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INICET May '24 Recall Session 👨‍⚕️ Dr. Niha Aggarwal is live ⭕️ now with an INICET May'24 Exam Recall Session of Ophthalmology on YouTube! 📚 Expert tips, subject coverage, doubt clearance, and interactive learning. ⚠️ Don't miss out! ⚠️ ⏰ Join the Session: https://youtube.com/live/VJRG7b9uAdk?feature=share
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INICET May'24 Recall Session 👨‍⚕️Dr. Niha Aggarwal will discuss the INICET May'24 recall questions of Ophthalmology in detail on 20th May (Today) from 07:00 PM onwards. 📚 Get expert tips, subject coverage, doubt clearance, and interactive learning. ⚠️ Don't miss out! ⚠️ ⏰ Set Your Reminder: https://youtube.com/live/VJRG7b9uAdk?feature=share
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INICET May '24 Recall Session 👨‍⚕️Dr. k.S. Vivekanandan will discuss the INICET May '24 recall questions of Psychiatry in detail on 20th May (Today) from 05:00 PM onwards. 📚 Get expert tips, subject coverage, doubt clearance, and interactive learning. ⚠️ Don't miss out! ⚠️ ⏰ Set Your Reminder: https://youtube.com/live/tHNpFJM0IDU?feature=share
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INICET May '24 Recall Session 👨‍⚕️ Dr. Saurabh Jindal is live⭕️ now with an INICET May'24 Exam Recall Session of Dermatology on YouTube! 📚 Expert tips,7 subject coverage, doubt clearance, and interactive learning. ⚠️ Don't miss out! ⚠️ ⏰ Join the Session: https://youtube.com/live/oCh6FqS0AX8
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INICET May '24 Recall Session 👨‍⚕️Dr. Saurabh Jindal will discuss the INICET May '24 recall Questions of Dermatology in detail on 20th May (Today) from 04:00 PM onwards. 📚 Get expert tips, subject coverage, doubt clearance, and interactive learning. ⚠️ Don't miss out! ⚠️ ⏰ Join the Session: https://youtube.com/live/oCh6FqS0AX8?feature=share
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INICET May '24 Recall Session 👨‍⚕ Dr. Abdul Naseer is live⭕now with an INICET May'24 Exam Recall Session of Microbiology on YouTube! 📚 Expert tips, subject coverage, doubt clearance, and interactive learning. ⚠ Don't miss out! ⚠ ⏰ Join the Session: https://youtube.com/live/1e85ROIHy80
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INICET May '24 Recall Session 👨‍⚕ Dr. Ashish Kumar is live⭕ now with an INICET May'24 Exam Recall Session of Physiology on YouTube! 📚 Expert tips, subject coverage, doubt clearance, and interactive learning. ⚠ Don't miss out! ⚠ ⏰ Join the Session: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=A89mxm_9Lg0
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INICET May '24 Recall Session 👨‍⚕ Dr. Pooja Johri is live⭕ now with an INICET May'24 Exam Recall Session of Biochemistry on YouTube! 📚 Expert tips, subject coverage, doubt clearance, and interactive learning. ⚠ Don't miss out! ⚠ ⏰ Join the Session: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=A89mxm_9Lg0
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The INICET 2024 exam is over! Hope your INICET 2024 went well. Want to know how you did in the exam? Dr. Rajat Jain, the original guru of Radiology, is now⭕ live with the INICET May 2024 exam analysis. 📚 Get expert tips, subject coverage, doubt clearance, and interactive learning. ⚠️ Don't miss out! ⚠️ On the DBMCI eGurukul official YouTube Channel🎥 ⏰ Join the session: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=A89mxm_9Lg0
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Dear Medicos, we are proud to show our report card to you! We scored an amazing 93% Strike Rate for INICET May'24. Join the DBMCI eGurukul family to be a part of the A+ performance squad. #bhatia_hai_to_Bharosa_hai 👍
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Answer2800. #EXPLANATION ⦁ Asbestos enters the body by inhalation, and fine dust may be deposited in the alveoli. The fibres are insoluble. Disease may progress even after removal of contact. ⦁ The dust deposited in the lungs causes pulmonary fibrosis leading to respiratory insufficiency and death; carcinoma of the bronchus; mesothelioma of the pleura or peritoneum; and cancer of the gastro-intestinal tract. ⦁ The disease does not usually appear until after 5 to 10 years of exposure. ⦁ The fibrosis in asbestosis is due to mechanical irritation, and is peribronchial, diffuse in character, and basal in location in contrast to silicosis in which the fibrosis is nodular in character and present in the upper part of the lungs. Ans. C. Asbestos
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Answer2799. #EXPLANATION ⦁ Nasopharyngeal cultures in untreated pertussis remain positive for a mean of 3 weeks after the onset of illness; these cultures become negative within 5 days of the institution of appropriate antimicrobial therapy. ⦁ The duration of a positive PCR in untreated pertussis or after therapy is not known but exceeds that of positive cultures. ⦁ Since much of the period during which the organism can be recovered from the nasopharynx falls into the catarrhal phase, when the etiology of the infection is not suspected, there is only a small window of opportunity for culture-proven diagnosis. Ans. C. Nasopharyngeal swab.
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Answer2798. #EXPLANATION ⦁ Losartan causes renal damage in the fetus, and renal impairment in renovascular disease. It is contraindicated in pregnancy. ⦁ Clonidine (choice A) causes some sedation and rebound hypertension when stopped suddenly, but is not contraindicated in pregnancy. ⦁ Hydralazine (choice B) causes a reversible type of lupus erythematosus. ⦁ Hydrochlorothiazide (choice C) may cause hypokalemia, dilutional hyponatremia, elevated lipids, hyperuricemia, and glucose intolerance. ⦁ Methyldopa causes sedation and formation of red blood cell antibodies, but has been shown to be safe in pregnancy. Ans. D. Losartan
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Answer2796. #EXPLANATION Triage: Consists of rapidly classifying the injured ‘on the basis of severity of their injuries and likelihood of their survival’ with prompt medical intervention ⦁ First come first serve is NOT followed in emergencies ⦁ Triage sieve: Quick survey to separate the dead and the walking from the injured ⦁ Triage sort: Remaining casualties are assessed and allocated to categories ⦁ Triage system: Most commonly uses FOUR color code system: – Red (Highest Priority): Immediate resuscitation or limb/lifesaving surgery in next 6 hours – Yellow (High Priority): Possible resuscitation or limb/lifesaving surgery in next 24 hours – Green (Low Priority): Minor illness/ambulatory patients – Black (Least Priority): Dead and moribund patients • Tagging: Is the procedure where identification, age, place of origin, triage category, diagnosis and initial treatment are tagged on to every victim of disaster through a colour coding • Mitigation: Measures designed to either prevent hazards from causing emergency or to lessen the effects of emergency. Ans. B. Triage
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Answer2797. #EXPLANATION ⦁ Amiodarone is a large, insoluble molecule that deposits in skin (and the cornea) and causes photosensitivity. ⦁ It contains two iodine atoms, which may be responsible for binding to thyroid receptors and the observed thyroid problems. It is associated with pulmonary fibrosis (sometimes fatal), but the mechanism is unknown. ⦁ In spite of these adverse effects, it is extremely useful in arrhythmia treatment. ⦁ Diltiazem (choice B) is associated with constipation and cardiac depression; ibutilide (choice C) with torsade de pointe arrhythmia, lidocaine (choice D) with convulsions, and procainamide with torsade de pointe arrhythmia and drug-induced lupus. Ans. A. Amiodarone
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Answer2810. #EXPLANATION Flail chest: ⦁ Occurs when several adjacent ribs are fractured in two places either on one side of the chest or either side of the sternum, the flat segment moves paradoxically, that is, inwards during inspiration and outwards during expiration (Paradoxical respiration). ⦁ Net result is poor oxygenation from injury to the underlying lung parenchyma and paradoxical movement of the flail segment. ⦁ If the segment is small and not embarrassing respiration local control of chest pain with good analgesia and regular blood gas analysis until the flail segment stabilizes. ⦁ In more severe cases endotracheal intubation with positive pressure ventilation for up to 3 weeks, until the fracture becomes less mobile. Ans. B. (IPPV with oral intubation)
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Answer2809. #EXPLANATION ⦁ All the choices in the given question can present with chest pain especially GERD can present with epigastric discomfort. ⦁ But none other than MI and pericarditis present with ECG changes ⦁ ECG changes in the given question are ST elevation Inferior leads which is typical of inferior wall MI. Ans. D. Inferior wall myocardial infarction
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Answer2808. #EXPLANATION Unsafe CSOM (atticoantral type) involves the posterosuperior part of middle ear cleft (attic, antrum, posterior tympanum and mastoid) and is associated with cholesteatoma, which, because of its bone eroding properties, causes risk of serious complications for this reason, the disease is also called unsafe or dangerous type. Surgical treatment is the mainstay in the management. Primary aim is to remove the disease and render the ear safe, and second in priority is to preserve the hearing but never at the cost of primary aim. Two types of surgical procedures are done to deal with cholesteatoma: ⦁ Canal wall down procedures and ⦁ Canal wall up procedures. Ans. D. Tympano-mastoid exploration
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Answer2806. #EXPLANATION Pelvic hematocele - may follow an instrumental delivery, a paracervical or pudendal block anaesthesia, vigorous ironing of the lower vagina and perineum during delivery or even rarely after a normal delivery. Retroverted gravid uterus - causes urinary retention at 12 weeks of gestations. ⦁ The patients treated with infertility most likely the incidence of ectopic pregnancy is much higher presents with amenorrhoea (75%), Abdominal pain (95%), vaginal bleeding, retention of urine ⦁ Retention of urine - In a subacute variety of ectopic pregnancy, the blood collects in pouch of Douglas to form a pelvic haematocele, this haematocele forms an irregular mass of differing consistency due to a mixture of clot and blood, and bulges forwards, displacing the cervix against the bladder and leading to retention of urine ⦁ Cervical fibroid [929-W- Myomas in the cervix or lower uterine segment may obstruct labour and may be confused with the fetal head. Ans. C. Pelvic haematocele
نمایش همه...
Answer2807. #EXPLANATION ⦁ Moderate leukocytosis is characteristic of acute appendicitis, but a white blood count of 22,000/mm3 suggests either appendiceal rupture or some other diagnosis. ⦁ When an inflamed appendix lies posteriorly near the ureter, other white blood cells or red blood cells may be found in the urinary sediment. ⦁ Other studies are not usually required to establish a diagnosis of acute appendicitis. If an abdominal x-ray is done, a fecalith may be seen in the right lower quadrant, or nonspecific ileus may be present. ⦁ However, it is not unusual for the study to be entirely normal. Similarly, ultrasound examination mayor may not identify an inflammatory right lower quadrant mass. Ans. D. White blood count 22,000/mm3
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Q2810. A man presented with fractures of 4th to 10th ribs and respiratory distress after a Road Traffic Accident (RTA). He is diagnosed to have flail chest and a PaO2 of < 60%, management is:Anonymous voting
  • (A). Tracheostomy
  • (B). IPPV with oral intubation
  • (C). Fixation of ribs
  • (D). Strapping of chest
0 votes
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Q2809. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Anonymous voting
  • (A) Gastroesophageal reflux
  • (B) Costochondritis
  • (C) Pericarditis
  • (D) Inferior wall myocardial infarction
0 votes
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Q2808. A child presents with ear infection with foul smelling discharge. On further exploration a small perforation is found in the pars flaccida of the tympanic membrane. Most appropriate next step in the management would be:Anonymous voting
  • (A) Topical antibiotics and decongestants for 4 weeks
  • (B) IV antibiotics and follow up after a month
  • (C) Tympanoplasty
  • (D) Tympano-mastoid exploration
0 votes
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Q2806. A patient treated for infertility presents with 8 weeks' amenorrhoea, retention of urine and abdominal pain. Diagnosis is:Anonymous voting
  • (A) Impacted cervical fibroid
  • (B) Retroverted gravid fibroid
  • (C) Pelvic haematocele
  • (D) Uterine haematoma
0 votes
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Q2807. Each of the following laboratory results is compatible with a diagnosis of acute unruptured appendicitis EXCEPT:Anonymous voting
  • (A). 5-10 WBC/hpf in urinary sediment
  • (B). No visualization of the appendix by ultrasound
  • (C). 1-2 RBC/hpf in urinary sediment
  • (D). White blood count 22,000/mm3
0 votes