Case-based MCQ

🇨🇦 MCCQE1,2 | #Case_135 | #answer 〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰 ✅ A 🔎 Explanation Reiter's syndrome (reactive arthritis) is inflammation of the joints and tendon attachments at the joints, often accompanied by inflammation of the eye's conjunctiva or iris and the mucous membranes, such as those of the mouth and genitourinary tract, and by a distinctive rash. Reiter's syndrome is also called reactive arthritis because the joint inflammation appears to be a reaction to an infection originating in the intestine or genital tract. This syndrome is most common in men aged 20 to 40. Typically, symptoms begin 7 to 14 days after the infection. Inflammation of the urethra result either directly from infection of the urethra or even from a reaction to the intestinal infection. In men, inflammation of the urethra causes moderate pain and a discharge from the penis or a rash on the glans of the penis (balanitis circinata). The prostate gland may be inflamed and painful. The genital and urinary symptoms in women, if any occur, are usually mild, consisting of a slight vaginal discharge or uncomfortable urination. The conjunctiva become red and inflamed, causing itching or burning and excessive tearing. Joint pain and inflammation may be mild or severe. Several joints are usually affected at once, especially the knees, toe joints, and areas where tendons are attached to bones, such as at the heels. Small, painless or tender sores can develop in the mouth. Note: The classic triad of symptoms (conjunctivitis, urethritis, and arthritis), found in only one third of patients with reactive arthritis, has a sensitivity of 50.6% and a specificity of 98.9%

🇨🇦 MCCQE1,2 | #Case_135 〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰 A 21-year-old bisexual man has a 4 week history of intermittent diarrhea, urethral discharge, and pain in the right knee and left second toe. He has several oral ulcers, iritis, a scaly papular rash on palms and soles, onycholysis, swelling of the left second toe, heat and swelling of the right knee and a clear urethral discharge. The results of Gram-stain and culture of urethral discharge are negative. Rheumatoid factor is not present. The most likely diagnosis is: a) Reiter’s syndrome b) Gonococcal arthritis c) Behcet disease d) Psoriatic arthritis e) Acquired immune deficiency syndrome

🇨🇦 MCCQE1,2 | #Case_134 | #answer 〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰 ✅ B 🔎 Explanation This patient’s history of traumatic injury to the pelvis, his inability to urinate, and the findings of blood at the urethral meatus are suggestive of urethral injury. In males, the urethra is divided into the anterior and posterior sections by the urogenital diaphragm. Most pelvic fractures resulting from road traffic accidents are associated with injuries to the posterior urethra. Similar to any other trauma case, initial management should start with stabilizing the patient by giving fluid resuscitation to those with blood loss and hypotension. Presence of blood at meatus precludes any attempt at urethral instrumentation, until the entire urethra is adequately imaged. Retrograde urethrography (choice B) is considered the gold standard imaging for evaluating urethral injury and is the best next step in the management of this patient. ⚠ Ultrasonography (choice A) is not a routine investigation in the initial assessment of urethral injuries but can be very useful in determining the position of the pelvic hematomas and the high-riding bladder when a suprapubic catheter is indicated. ⚠ Abdominal and pelvic CT scan (choice C) is useful in defining the distorted pelvic anatomy after severe injury and assessing associated injuries of penile crura, bladder, kidney, and intraabdominal organs. However, it is not part of initial assessment of urethral injury and would not be the best next step in the evaluation of this patient. ⚠ Urethral catheterization (choice D) is contraindicated in pelvic injuries with blood at the urethral meatus as it could convert a partial tear into a complete one. Retrograde urethrography should be done first. ⚠ Voiding cystourethrography (choice E) is done after about 4 weeks when a delayed repair is being considered. This allows urethral healing and is preceded by suprapubic cystostomy as it is performed through the suprapubic catheter. Therefore, voiding cystourethrography would not be the next step in the management of this patient as the suprapubic catheter would have to be in place few weeks earlier first. 🔖Key point: Traumatic injury to the pelvis, inability to urinate, and blood at the penis meatus are suggestive of urethral injury. Retrograde urethrography is considered the gold standard imaging for evaluating urethral injury.

🇨🇦 MCCQE1,2 | #Case_134 〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰 A 25-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after he was thrown off his motorcycle following a collision with an automobile. He was stabilized by paramedics, who brought him to the ED. While he denies any loss of consciousness, he describes a sensation of wanting to urinate but being physically unable to.On physical examination, his abdomen is diffusely tender to palpation. There is blood at the meatus of the penis. After fluid resuscitation, a radiograph of the pelvis is taken and demonstrates a fracture of the pubic symphysis. What is the most appropriate next step in the investigation of this patient’s genitourinary tract’s injury? a) Ultrasonography b) Retrograde urethrography c) Abdominal and pelvic CT scan d) Urethral catheterization e) Voiding cystourethrography

🇨🇦 MCCQE1,2 | #Case_133 | #answer 〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰 ✅ A 🔎 Explanation Management of ectopic pregnancy with methotrexate is appropriate in patients who have a beta-hCG level < 5,000 mIU/mL; who are without liver or renal disease, immune or platelet compromise, or significant pulmonary disease; and who are reliable and able to follow up daily if necessary. If the beta-HCG level has not dropped at least 15% from the day-4 level, administer a second IM dose of methotrexate (50 mg/m2) on day 7, and observe the patient. If no drop has occurred by day 14, surgical therapy is indicated. Laparoscopy with salpingostomy is the preferred method. Expectant management is appropriate only if a patient has a beta-hCG level < 1000 mIU/mL that is declining.

🇨🇦 MCCQE1,2 | #Case_133 〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰 A 26-year-old female presents with lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. Her last menstrual period was 7 weeks ago. A urine pregnancy test is positive, and a quantitative beta-hCG level is 2500 mIU/mL. Intravaginal ultrasonography shows no evidence of an intrauterine gestational sac. Baseline laboratory tests, including a CBC, liver function tests, and renal function tests, are all normal. She is treated with a single dose of intramuscular methotrexate at 50 mg/m² of body surface. Day 4 lab results show quantitative beta-hCG level of 2800 mIU/mL on day 4. Seven days later, the patient presents for reevaluation, and her quantitative beta-hCG is found to be 2640 mIU/mL. Which one of the following is the most appropriate next step? a) A repeat dose of methotrexate, 50 mg/m² of body surface b) Methotrexate, 1 mg/kg every other day, plus leucovorin, 0.1 mg/kg on alternate days c) Repeat transvaginal ultrasonography to evaluate for a viable intrauterine pregnancy d) Laparoscopy with salpingostomy e) Expectant management

🇨🇦 MCCQE1,2 | #Case_132 | #answer 〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰 ✅ B 🔎 Explanation Most children will be evaluated for a febrile illness before 36 months of age, with the majority having a self-limited viral illness. For the management of febrile infants, the most commonly used criteria in practice are the Rochester criteria. Clinical assessment involves deciding whether a child appears toxic. The clinical features that define toxicity include irritability, lethargy, and decreased social interaction. Nontoxic-appearing febrile infants 29-90 days of age who have a negative screening laboratory workup, including a CBC with differential and a normal urinalysis, can be sent home and followed up in 24 hours(choice B). Occasionally it may be important to obtain blood cultures and stool studies, or a chest film if indicated by the history or examination, and spinal fluid studies if empiric antibiotics are to be given. This infant’s clinical status did not indicate that any of these additional studies should be performed and empiric antibiotic treatment is not planned. For example, if a child has diarrhea, stool studies are usually done. ⚠ Home care and parental observation only, as long as the temperature remains under 39.0°C (choice A) is incorrect. Observation with no follow-up is an appropriate strategy in nontoxic children, but only if the child is 3-36 months of age and the temperature is under 39°C. Nontoxic children 3-36 months of age should be reevaluated in 24-48 hours if the temperature is over 39°C. Although a positive response to antipyretics has been considered an indication of a lower risk of serious bacterial infection, there is no correlation between fever reduction and the likelihood of such an infection. ⚠ Oral antibiotics and reevaluation in 24 hours (choice C) is incorrect. This child is considered low risk, therefore, lumbar puncture or empiric antibiotic therapy are not recommended. For children whose condition warrants antibiotherapy and re-evaluation in 24 hours, lumbar puncture should be done before antibiotics to avoid affecting sensitivity studies. ⚠ A complete sepsis workup, including blood cultures, stool studies, a chest radiograph, and cerebrospinal fluid studies (choice D) should be done for any infant younger than 29 days, and any infant or child with a toxic appearance regardless of age. They should undergo a complete sepsis workup and be admitted for observation until culture results are obtained or the source of the fever is found and treated. ⚠ Hospital admission and adequate antibiotic treatment and fluid resuscitation (choice E) are not recommended in this non-toxic child with initial studies showing no abnormality.

🇨🇦 MCCQE1,2 | #Case_132 〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰 The parents of a 40-day-old infant bring her to your clinic because she has had a persistent fever for the past 2 days with rectal temperatures between 38.1°C (100.5°F) and 38.9°C (102.0°F). She has been fussy and wants to be held, but has been nursing well. She is crying when you enter the room, and on examination she has good skin turgor and capillary refill. The examination does not reveal any obvious source of infection. By the time you complete the examination the infant is resting quietly in her father’s arms. You obtain a CBC and urinalysis. The WBC count is 12,500/mm³ (N 5000-19,500) with an absolute neutrophil count of 8500/mm³ (N 1000-9000). The urinalysis is within normal limits. Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this time? a) Home care and parental observation only, as long as the temperature remains under 39.0°C b) Home care and reevaluation in 24 hours c) Oral antibiotics and reevaluation in 24 hours d) A complete sepsis workup, including blood cultures, stool studies, a chest radiograph, and cerebrospinal fluid studies e) Hospital admission and adequate antibiotic treatment and fluid resuscitation

🇨🇦 MCCQE1,2 | #Case_131 | #answer 〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰 ✅ E 🔎 Explanation No monitoring is required (choice E) for the anticoagulant effect of LMWH. The anticoagulant response to LMWH is predictable and monitoring is thus not necessary in most patients. Monitoring is indicated only in obese patients and those with renal impairment. This patient's renal function was normal and he was not obese (his body weight is 60 kg as inferred from the calculated daily dose of LMWH). ⚠ Education point measurement of INR (choice A) is not the correct choice. Even if monitoring were indicated, INR would not be suitable for monitoring the anticoagulant effect of LMWH. LMWHs act by catalyzing inhibition of factor Xa and measurement of INR is not markedly affected by this inhibition. ⚠ Measurement aPPT (choice B) is not the correct choice. Even if monitoring were indicated, aPPT would not be the best way to monitor the anticoagulant effect of LMWHs because these anticoagulants have little effects on aPPT. aPPT is the method of choice for monitoring the effects of unfractionated heparin (UFH) rather than LMWHs. UFH inhibits both Xa and thrombin and can thus, affect aPPT. LMWHs on the other hand inhibit factor Xa only and their effect on aPPT is minimal. ⚠ Measurement of plasma antifactor Xa levels (choice C) is not the correct choice even though this would be the method of choice for monitoring the anticoagulant effect of LMWHs if this were indicated. ⚠ Measurement of serum levels of LMWH (choice D) is not the correct choice. Because the major side effect of LMWHs is bleeding and because of predictability of the anticoagulant response to LMWHs, measurement of serum levels of these anticoagulant is not required. Also, because LMWHs are eliminated almost exclusively through the kidney, measurement of serum levels is not required in patients with normal renal function like our patient. 🔖Key point: In patients with normal renal function and those who are not obese, monitoring the anticoagulant effect of LMWHs is not required

🇨🇦 MCCQE1,2 | #Case_131 〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰 A 57-year-old man underwent pneumonectomy to remove an epithelioma. Complete blood count, renal and liver functions tests were normal. He was prescribed 100units/kg of low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) as prophylaxis against venous thrombosis. His calculated daily dose of 6000 units was given subcutaneously, twice daily. Which one of the following is recommended for monitoring of the anticoagulant effects of LMWH? a) Measurement of international normalized ratio (INR) b) Measurement of activated partial thromboplastin time (aPPT) c) Measurement of plasma antifactor Xa levels d) Measurement of serum levels of LMWH e) No monitoring is required

🇨🇦 MCCQE1,2 | #Case_130 | #answer 〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰 ✅ B 🔎 Explanation When it is unclear whether the patient has nocturnal asthma or gastroesophageal reflux disease, a trial of proton pump inhibitors (choice B) is both diagnostic and therapeutic. ⚠ There is no evidence of bacterial infectious process; thus empiric antibiotics (choice A) are inappropriate. ⚠ Oral steroids (choice C) would worsen the GERD and even if this were nocturnal asthma, they are never appropriate as an initial approach. ⚠ Salbutamol and/or Ipratropium (choice D and choice E) would be appropriate for asthma or COPD control.

🇨🇦 MCCQE1,2 | #Case_130 〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰 A 46-year-old female presents to your office complaining of wheezing for the past 2 weeks. She denies a history of asthma or any major medical illness. She is a non-smoker but drinks alcohol on the weekends. She admits to having intermittent hoarseness of voice for the past few weeks. Her vitals are within normal limits. Examination of the upper respiratory tract reveals a red and inflamed larynx. Chest is clear to auscultation and percussion. Based on the history and physical exam, what is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient? a) A trial of antibiotics b) Omeprazole daily c) Oral steroids d) Salbutamol + Ipratropium inhaler e) Salbutamol inhaler

🇨🇦 MCCQE1,2 | #Case_129 | #answer 〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰 ✅ C 🔎 Explanation The current guidelines define clinically significant microscopic hematuria as 3 RBCs/hpf. Microscopic hematuria is frequently an incidental finding, but may be associated with urologic malignancy in up to 10% of adults. All patients should have a urine culture (choice C) first to exclude infection prior to evaluation of hematuria. Patients who have a positive urine culture should be treated for infection with close follow-up

🇨🇦 MCCQE1,2 | #Case_129 〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰 A 45-year-old male sees you for follow-up after a pre-employment physical examination reveals blood in his urine. He brings a copy of a urinalysis report that shows 3-5 RBCs/hpf. He has not seen any gross blood himself. He is asymptomatic, is on no medications, and does not smoke. You perform a physical examination, with normal findings. A repeat urinalysis confirms the presence of red blood cells but is otherwise normal. Which one of the following would you order first to evaluate this patient? a) Observation and reassurance b) A repeat urinalysis in 6 months c) Urine culture d) Cystoscopy e) Renal biopsy

🇨🇦 MCCQE1,2 | #Case_128 | #answer 〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰 ✅ B 🔎 Explanation Cautious reduction of systolic blood pressure by 10%-15% while monitoring neurologic status seems to be the safest treatment goal in the setting of acute ischemic stroke when the systolic blood pressure is > 220 mm Hg or the diastolic blood pressure is 120-140 mm Hg. According to JNC-7, more aggressive blood pressure reduction may increase cerebrovascular complications

🇨🇦 MCCQE1,2 | #Case_128 〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰 A 79-year-old male presents with left-sided hemiparesis. His previous medical history is significant for long-standing hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. On examination his blood pressure is 220/130 mm Hg and his pulse rate is 96 beats/min. CT of the head shows no acute bleeding. An EKG shows left ventricular hypertrophy with diffuse nonspecific changes. Which one of the following would be most appropriate with regard to his blood pressure at this time? a) Watchful waiting b) Reduction of systolic blood pressure (SBP) to 190 mm Hg c) Reduction of SBP to 170 mm Hg d) Reduction of SBP to 150 mm Hg e) Reduction of SBP to 130 mm Hg

🇨🇦 MCCQE1,2 | #Case_127 | #answer 〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰 ✅ C 🔎 Explanation Dupuytren’s contracture is characterized by changes in the palmar fascia, with progressive thickening and nodule formation that can progress to a contracture of the associated finger. The fourth finger is most commonly affected. Pitting or dimpling can occur over the nodule because of the connection with the skin. Degenerative joint disease is not associated with a palmar nodule. Trigger finger is related to the tendon, not the palmar fascia, and causes the finger to lock and release. Ganglions also affect the tendons or joints, are not located in the fascia, and are not associated with contractures. Flexor tenosynovitis, an inflammation, is associated with pain, which is not usually seen with Dupuytren’s contracture

🇨🇦 MCCQE1,2 | #Case_127 〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰 A 52-year-old male presents with a small nodule in his palm just proximal to the fourth metacarpophalangeal joint. It has grown larger since it first appeared, and he now has mild flexion of the finger, which he is unable to straighten. He reports that his father had similar problems with his fingers. On examination you note pitting of the skin over the nodule. The most likely diagnosis is: a) Degenerative joint disease b) Trigger finger c) Dupuytren’s contracture d) A ganglion e) Flexor tenosynovitis

🇨🇦 MCCQE1,2 | #Case_126 | #answer 〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰 ✅ E 🔎 Explanation Patients with thoracic aneurysms often present without symptoms. With dissecting aneurysms, however, the presenting symptom depends on the location of the aneurysm. Aneurysms can compress or distort nearby structures, resulting in branch vessel compression or embolization of peripheral arteries from a thrombus within the aneurysm. Leakage of the aneurysm will cause pain, and rupture can occur with catastrophic results, including severe pain, hypotension, shock, and death. Aneurysms in the ascending aorta may present with acute heart failure brought about by aortic regurgitation from aortic root dilatation and distortion of the annulus. Other presenting findings may include hoarseness, myocardial ischemia, paralysis of a hemidiaphragm, wheezing, coughing, hemoptysis, dyspnea, dysphagia, or superior vena cava syndrome. This diagnosis should be suspected in individuals in their sixties and seventies with the same risk factors as those for coronary artery disease, particularly smokers. A chest radiograph may show widening of the mediastinum, enlargement of the aortic knob, or tracheal displacement. Transesophageal echocardiography can be very useful when dissection is suspected. CT with intravenous contrast is very accurate for showing the size, extent of disease, pressure of leakage, and nearby pathology. Angiography is the preferred method for evaluation and is best for evaluation of branch vessel pathology. MR angiography provides noninvasive multiplanar image reconstruction, but does have limited availability and lower resolution than traditional contrast angiography.Acute dissection of the ascending aorta is a surgical emergency, but dissections confined to the descending aorta are managed medically unless the patient demonstrates progression or continued hemorrhage into the retroperitoneal space or pleura. Initial management should reduce the systolic blood pressure to 100-120 mm Hg or to the lowest level tolerated. The use of a beta-blocker such as propranolol or labetalol to get the heart rate below 60 beats/min should be first-line therapy. If the systolic blood pressure remains over 100 mm Hg, intravenous nitroprusside should be added. Vasodilation will induce reflex activation of the sympathetic nervous system, causing increased ventricular contraction and increased shear stress on the aorta. For descending dissections, surgery is indicated only for complications such as occlusion of a major aortic branch, continued extension or expansion of the dissection, or rupture (which may be manifested by persistent or recurrent pain).

🧩 Medical Mnemonics #Crohn's disease features 🎄🎄 MERRY CHRISTMAS with lots of love.💓 🎅Malabsorption 🎅Eye involvement(uveitis, iritis, and episcleritis) 🎅Renal stone(oxalate) 🎅Reduced bone mass(osteoprosis) 🎅Yeast infections(Candida) 🎅Cobblestones appearance 🎅High temperature(fever) 🎅Reduced lumen 🎅Intestinal fistulae 🎅Skin lesions(Erythema nodosum, pyoderma gangrenosum) 🎅Transmural ulceration 🎅Musculoskeletal involvement(Arthritis, Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy) 🎅Abdominal pain 🎅Submucous fibrosis/String Sign on barium X ray #gastroenterology 〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰 📡 Medical Mnemonics