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Candidates offering Pre-Technical Skills are required to write their answers on the drawing sheets.
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Answer booklets containing supplementary and graph sheets are to be used for the following subjects:
English Language
Mathematics
Integrated science
Ghanaian language
Social studies
Religious and Moral Education
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Two Subjects to be written daily:
Morning papers 9:00 am.
Afternoon papers 1:00 pm
For Bece 💯💯💯
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(c) Ma nhw`so abien w= selabolo a edidi so yi my biara w= Twi kasa mu.
As`mfua a `w= selabolo:
(i) abien
(ii) abi`sa
(iii) anum
D`n ne selabolo?
PAPER 2
WAEC Sample Questions and Schemes
PROSE
B. O. AMOAKO: ~NN~ NSO BIO
1. “Afei nso wohy`` y`n dendenden s` y`mmma no nnk=tena baabi anna y`mmma no anhw` a na wakodi n’akyiwade`”.
(i) Henan a =kaa saa as`m yi?
(ii) D`n na esii nita =kaa saa as`m yi?
(iii) D`n na nea =kaa as`m nokyer`` no no, y`a? Ad`n ntia?
2. Kyer`w
b ahorow abien fi nhoma yi mu a, `ma as`m a `w= nhoma no mu no t= asom.
3. Kyer` suban sononko a `da Agya Kwaku ne Eno Abena Agyem ntam w= nhoma no mu.
DRAMA
E. OWUSU KORANTENG: GUASOHANTAN
1. Ka nea wumin w= nnipa a wodidi so yi mu biara ho. (a) +s`e Bonso
(b) Antiri (c) Apeadu
2. ~no nti na mpanyin se: “Obi nware ne kuromnni nnu ne ho”.
(a) Henan a =kaa saa as`m yi?
(b) +ka kyer`` hena?
(c) Bere b`n na =kasafo no kaa saa as`m yi?
(d) As`m no kosii d`n?
POETRY
J. GYEKYE-ABOAGYE: ABRAB+ MU ANWENS~M
Abrab=
1. (a)
(b) (c)
(d)
(c)
Mia W’ani 2. (a)
As`ntitiriw b`n na `w= anwens`m yi mu?
Tebea b`n na =kyer`wfo now= mu?
Kyer` kasasu ahorow abien a =kyer`wfo no de di dwuma w= anwens`m no mu a, ma ne d da adi.
Kyer` akwan ahorow anan a =kyer`wfo no faa so de hyehy`` anwens`m no.
As`ntitiriw b`n na anwens`m “Mia W’ani” de to gua? (b) (i) Asuade b`n na =kyer`wfo no de ma akenkanfo?
(ii) Fa as`m bi fi anwens`m I mu foa nea woaka no so. Kyer` kasasu abien bi w= anwens`m yi mu a y
(i) s`nipa
(ii) kasakoa
WAEC Sample Questions and Schemes
(iii) ases`s`m
(iv) nnyinah=ma
ORAL LITERATURE
1. (a)
(b) Kyer`w nhyehy`e a `w= Agyarek= mu na ma emu biara ho nhw`so abien abien.
D`n ne Agyarek=?
2. (a)
(b) Kyer` `ho mfaso abi`sa.
Kyer`w nsonsonee a `da adomankomas`m ne atetes`m ntam.
3. (a)
(b) Kyer`w b abien fan ea edidi so yi mu biara ho.
(i) biakoy`
(ii) ahumm=b=
(iii) akokoduru
(iv) p`s`menkominya
D`n ne b?
4. (a)
(b) Kyer` emu biara mmuae na kyer` nea enti a mmuae no k= p`p``p`.
CUSTOMS AND INSTITUTIONS
Kyer`w Agyarek= ahorow anum.
1. (a)
(b) Kyer`w akyiwade ahorow abien ne ho asotwe kyer nea enti a saa asotwe no fata
emu biara.
(c) Kyer` nea eye ne nea enye w= saa akyiwade abien yi ho.
D`n ne akyiwade?
2. (a)
(b) Kyer` aware ho mfaso anan.
3. Kyer`kyer` nea edidi so yi ho mfaso w= awaregye mu.
(a) awarefo baanu no nkyi nhwekw`mu.
(b) pon akyi b=2 740
TWI (AKUAPEM) (ELECTIVE) SCHEME OF EXAMINATION
There will be two papers, Papers 1 and 2, both of which must be taken.
PAPER 1: Will test candidates’ language skill development. It will consist of four sections, Sections A, B, C and D as follows:
Section A: Four topics for composition will be set and candidates will be required to write an essay on one of them for 40 marks.
Section B: A prose passage will be set in English for translation into the language. The section will carry 20 marks.
Section C: Ten questions will be set on a passage to test candidates’ comprehension of the language. Candidates will be required to answer all the questions for 20 marks.
Section D: A number of items will be set to cover phonology and syntax. The section will carry 40 marks.
The paper shall take 3 hours.
PAPER 2: Will consist of two sections, sections A and B as follows:
Section A: Will contain two questions, one on Oral Literature and the other on Customs and Institutions. Candidates will be required to
answer only one of the questions for 20 marks.
Section B: Will cover Written Literature. It will consist of three parts, Part I, II and III on prose, drama and poetry respectively. Each part will have two questions and candidates will be required to answer only one question from each part for 20 marks each.
The paper shall take 2 hours 30 minutes.
WAEC Sample Questions and Schemes
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
COMPOSITION
PAPER 1
Fa ns`mfua ahanum kyer`w nea edidi so yi mu biako ho as`m.
1. Nnansa yi ogyahyehyew ad==so w= y`n guam. Kyer`w akwan ahorow abi`sa a `de
ogyahyehyew yi ba, na kyer` akwan ahorow abi`sa a y`b`fa so asiw ano.
2. W=ato nsa afr` wo s` b`ksasa w= sukuu agokansi bi ase w= wo kurom. Kyer`w nea wob`ka akyer` akansifo no bere a w=rebue dwumadi no ano.
3. Kyer`w krataa k=ma wo y=nko bia =w= sukuu foro bu mu na kyer` mpontudwuma ahorow abi`sa a =kyer`kyer`fo panyin no ay` w= sukuu no mu.
4. Akwan pa a w=rey` w= nkurow ak`se mu w= =man yi mu de =haw abr` =manfo a w=te mu no. Kyer` w’adwene.
SYNTAX
1. (a)
(b) Fa kasasin ahorow abi`sa yi biara y` =kasamu biako.
(i) edin kasasin
(ii) =kyer`fo kasasin
(iii) edin nkyer`kyer`mu kasasin.
(c) Kyer`w =kasamu a edidi yi so na sensan adey` kasasin no ase.
(i) Abofra no b`ba.
2. (a)
D`n ne kasasin?
(ii) +b=damfo no awu.
(iii) Papa no resaw w= dan no mu.
(iv) +bea no ank= gua so.
(v) Gyae saa!
Kyer`w adin a w=asana se w= =kasamu yi biara mu no dodow kabea.
(i) Papa no kumm =w= w= h=.
(ii) W=n afuw no ahyew.
(iii) Afurum no aguan k=.
(iv) Onifuraefo no t== amoa no mu.
(v) Agyanka no yeyaw =hene no.
(b) Fan
(i) +kyer`kyer`fo kae se: “Merenni aduan no”.
(ii) +panyin no kae se s`be: “Many` =kwasea”.
(iii) +b=damfo no te`m se: “Fi ha k=”.
(iv) “Y`anhu owifo”.
(v) Henan a =baa ha an=pa yi?”: +kyer`kyer`fo panyin no bisae.
ea edidi so yi mu biara k= “=teb`ka” kabea mu.
WAEC Sample Questions and Schemes
3. Fa =kasamufa kumaa a
hy adaka no mu wie kasamu yi mu biara.
(i) +ka kyer`` me ................ (edin kasamufa kumaa)
(ii) Keteke no duruu ............. (bere kyer`fo kasamufa kumaa)
(iii) Yekumm =w= no wo ............. (beae kyer`fo kasamufa kumaa)
(iv) Minim =barima ............. (nkyer`kyer`mu kasamufa kumaa)
(v) Y`hwee no .............. (s`nti kasamufa kumaa)
4. (a)
(b) Kyer`w kasamu ahorow na ma emu biara ho nhw`so ebien ebien.
(c) Kyer`w nea edidi so yi mu biara dwumadi ahorow abien abien w= =kasamu mu.
(i) As`nka
(ii) +hy`
(iii) As`mmisa
PHONOLOGY
1. (a) D`n ne `nne?
(b) Kyer`w `nne ahorow abien a `w= Akuapem kasa mu.
(c) Kyer`w `nne dwumadi abien w= Akuapem kasa mu.
(d) Fan hw`so asia kyer`kyer` sononko a nne de ba as`mfua a w=n nkyer`wee y p`
mu.
2. Fa nhw`so abien kyer` selabolo ahorow a edidi so yi biara w= Akuapem kasa mu.
(i) A~A
(ii) A~A~
(iii) A~~A
(iv) A~~~A~
(v) A~~
D`n ne kasamu?
3. (a)
Fa hw`so a fata kyer`kyer nnyigyei yinom dwumadi w= Akuapem kasa mu.
[a] [o] [u] [m] [!]
(b) Kyer` ``ne nnyigyei a edidi so yi mu biara su. []] [`] [=] [i] [I]
4. (a)
(b) Fa nhw`so abien a fata kyer`kyer selabolo a `w= Twi kasa mu.2 740
"............Management has directed the Regional Director of Education to liaise with the school authorities and the relevant law enforcement agency to investigate for appropriate action.
Ghana Education Service assures the general public that we are taking this matter very seriously and are committed to ensuring a safe and secure learning environment for all students across the country."
Cassandra Twum Ampofo
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LITERATURE-IN-ENGLISH EXAMINATION SCHEME
There will be three papers – Papers 1, 2 and 3. Papers 1 and 2 will be combined in a 1 hour 15 minutes composite paper and will be taken at one sitting
Paper 1 will be a multiple choice objective test. It will contain fifty questions distributed as follows:
(a) Twenty questions on General Knowledge of Literature;
(b) Five questions on an unseen prose passage;
(c) Five questions on an unseen poem;
(d) Twenty context questions on the prescribed Shakespearean text.
Candidates will be required to answer all the questions within 1 hour for 50 marks.
Paper 2 will be an essay test with two sections, Sections A and B. Section A will be on African Prose and Section B on Non African Prose.
Two essay questions will be set on each of the novels prescribed for study. Candidates shall be required to answer one question only from each section within 1 hour 15 minutes for 50 marks.
Paper 3 will be on the Drama and Poetry components of the syllabus. It will be put into four sections, Sections A, B. C and D as follows:
Section A: African Drama Section B: Non-African Drama Section C: African Poetry Section D: Non-African Poetry
There shall be two questions on each of the prescribed texts for each section. Candidates shall be required to answer one question from each of the sections, making a total of four questions. The paper will take 2 hours 30 minutes to complete and will carry 50 marks.
WAEC Sample Questions and Schemes
Note:
(i) The Unseen Prose passage for Paper 1 shall be about 120 – 150 words long.
(ii) Only context questions shall be set on the Shakespearean text. The context questions will test such items as theme, characterization, style and setting in the Shakespearean text.
(iii) No essay question shall be set on the Shakespearean text.
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
PAPER 1 (OBJECTIVES)
[General Knowledge on Literature]
1. ________ is sung to put a child to sleep. A. A ballad
B. A lullaby C. A dirge D. A pastoral
2. In drama the purposeful use of gestures and actions is A. soliloquy.
B. mime. C. eulogy. D. aside.
3. Imagery in a literary work A. creates suspense.
B. accentuates humour.
C. heightens the dramatic atmosphere. D. appeals to the senses.
WAEC Sample Questions and Schemes
4. All the world’s a stage, is an example of A. metaphor.
B. paradox.
C. allusion.
D. personification.
5. _____ is the time and place in which the action of a narrative takes place. A. Denouement
B. Mood C. Setting D. Plot
6. A tale in which the characters are often animals is A. a fable.
7.
B. an epic. C. a ballad. D. an ode.
Love indeed is anything, Yet indeed is nothing illustrates the use of
A. apostrophe.
B. antithesis. C. oxymoron. D. parody.
A reader’s curiosity is sustained through
8.
9.
A. B. C. D.
suspense. conflict. flashback. climax.
A hilarious and absurd play can be referred to as A. a farce.
B. a pantomime.
C. an ode.
D. a comedy. .
WAEC Sample Questions and Schemes
10. It is a bitter sweet experience is an example of A. metonymy.
B. pun.
C. onomatopoeia. D. oxymoron.
PAPER 2
SECTION A AFRICAN PROSE
ASARE KONADU: A Woman in her Prime
1. Discuss the relationship between Pokuwaa and Koramoa.
ADICHIE CHIMAMANDA NGOZI: Purple Hibiscus 2. Comment on the significance of the Palm Sunday clash.
SECTION B NON-AFRICAN PROSE
WILLIAM GOLDING: Lord of the Flies
3. Discuss three symbols used in the novel.
ERNEST HEMINGWAY: The Old Man and the Sea
4. What are the consequences of Santiago’s pride in the novel?
PAPER 3
(DRAMA & POETRY)
SECTION A AFRICAN DRAMA
KOBINA SEKYI: The Blinkards
1. To what extend is Mrs.Borofosem a blind imitator of the English ways of life?
WAEC Sample Questions and Schemes
FEMI OSOFISAN: Women of Owu
2. Discuss the plight of women in the play.
SECTION B
NON- AFRICAN DRAMA
BERNARD SHAW: Arms and the Man
3. Comment on the relationship between the Petkoffs and their servants.
OSCAR WILDE: The Importance of Being Earnest
4. Analyse the deceptive nature of Algernon.
SECTION C AFRICAN POETRY
5. Discuss the poet’s diction in the “The Fence”.
SECTION D NON-AFRICAN POETRY
6.
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sᴏᴍᴇᴛɪᴍᴇs ɪ ᴅᴏɴ'ᴛ ᴄᴏᴍᴘʀᴇʜᴇɴᴅ sᴏᴍᴇ ᴏꜰ sᴛᴜᴅᴇɴᴛs. ɪ ᴅᴇᴀʟ ᴡɪᴛʜ ᴀʟᴍᴏsᴛ ꜰᴏʀᴛʏ ᴛʜᴏᴜsᴀɴᴅ ᴄᴀɴᴅɪᴅᴀᴛᴇs. sɪɴᴄᴇ 2010, ɪ ʜᴀᴠᴇ ʙᴇᴇɴ ᴀssɪsᴛɪɴɢ ᴄᴀɴᴅɪᴅᴀᴛᴇs. ᴛʜᴇʀᴇ ᴀʀᴇ sᴛɪʟʟ ꜰᴏᴏʟɪsʜ ɪɴᴅɪᴠɪᴅᴜᴀʟs ᴡʜᴏ ʙᴇʟɪᴇᴠᴇ ɪ ᴡɪʟʟ ᴛᴀᴋᴇ ᴛʜᴇɪʀ 100ɢʜ ᴀɴᴅ ᴠᴀɴɪsʜ. ᴛʜᴏsᴇ ᴋɪᴅs ᴡɪʟʟ ᴀʟᴡᴀʏs ꜰᴀɪʟ ᴀɴᴅ ᴄᴏᴍᴇ ʙᴀᴄᴋ ᴛᴏ ᴡʀɪᴛᴇ ɴᴏᴠᴅᴇᴄ. ɪꜰ ʏᴏᴜ ʀᴇᴀʟɪsᴇ ʏᴏᴜ ᴀʀᴇɴ'ᴛ ᴘʀᴇᴘᴀʀᴇᴅ...sɪᴍᴘʟʏ ᴅᴏɴ'ᴛ ᴛᴇxᴛ ᴍᴇ. ᴛʜᴇʀᴇ ᴀʀᴇ ᴀ ʟᴀʀɢᴇ ɴᴜᴍʙᴇʀ ᴏꜰ sᴛᴜᴅᴇɴᴛs ᴛᴇxᴛɪɴɢ ᴍᴇ ᴇᴠᴇʀʏᴅᴀʏ. ᴍᴀᴋᴇ sᴜʀᴇ ʏᴏᴜ ɢᴏ sᴛʀᴀɪɢʜᴛ ᴛᴏ ᴛʜᴇ ᴘᴏɪɴᴛ 💯✅✅
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I have been into this for long and i know perfectly well how to rule it. This year questions will leak secretly .... The system is tight , we are therefore shaping ourselves well to fit in .Obey the simple instructions (terms and conditions) here and have the deal done to expectations
https://wa.me/message/DSH6UNKNJJOOA1
Text me !!!
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(c) Ma nhw`so= mmienu w= selabolo a `didi so= yi mu biara w= Twi kasa mu.
~de`n ne Selabolo? As`mfua a `w= selabolo:
WAEC Sample Questions and Schemes
(i) mmienu
(ii) mmi`nsa
(iii) nnum
B. O. AMOAKO:
1. “Afei nso wohy`` y`n dendeenden s` y`mmma no nnk=tena baabi anaa y`mmma no
nntutu kwan basabasa
firi s anhw` a na wakodi n’akyiwade`”
(i) Hwan na =kaa saa as`m yi?
(ii) De`n na sii nti a =kaa saa as`m yi?
(iii) De`n na nea =kaa as`m no kyer`` no no, y`e`? Ad`n ntira?
2. Twer` b ahoro= mmienu firi nwoma yi mu a `ma, as`m a `w= nwoma no mu no t= asom.
3. Kyer` suban sononko a `da Agya Kwaku ne Eno Abena Agyem ntam w= nwoma no mu.
DRAMA
E. OWUSU KORANTENG: GUASOHANTAN
1. Ka nea wonim w= nnipa a w=didi so= yi mu biara ho.
(a) +s`e Bonsu (b) Antiri
(c) Apeadu
2. ~no nti na mpanimfo= se: “Obi nware ne kuromnni nnu ne ho”.
(a) Hwan na =kaa saa as`m yi?
(b) +ka kyer`` hwan?
(c) Ber` b`n na =kasafo= no kaa as`m yi?
(d) As`m no k=sii s`n?
POETRY
J. GYEKYE-ABOAGYE: ABRAB+ MU ANWONS~M
PAPER 2
PROSE
~NN~ NSO BIO
Abrab=
1. (a)
(b) (c)
As`ntitire b`n na `w= anwons`m yi mu?
Tebea b`n na =twer`fo= no wo mu?
Twer` kasasu ahoro= mmienu a =twer`fo= no de di dwuma w= anwens`m no mu a, ma ne d da adi.
WAEC Sample Questions and Schemes
Mia W’ani 2. (a)
(d)
(c)
Kyer` akwan ahoro= nnan a =kyer`fo= no faa so de hyehy`` anwens`m no.
As`ntitire b`n na anwens`m “Mia W’ani” de to dwa?
(b) (i) Asuade` b`n na =twer`fo= no de ma akenkanfo=?
ORAL LITERATURE
(ii) Fa as`m bi firi anwens`m yi mu foa nea woaka no so.
Twer` kasasu mmienu bi w= anwens`m yi mu a y:
(i) S`nipa
(ii) Kasakoa
(iii) Ases`s`m
(iv) Nnyinah=ma
1. (a)
(b) Kyer` nhyeh`e` a `w= Agyarek= mu na ma emu biara ho nhw`so= mmienu
mmienu.
Kyer` nsonsonoe` a da adomankomas`m ne atetes`m ntam. (b) Twer ho mfaso= mmi`nsa.
2. (a)
3. (a)
~de`n ne ~b`?
~de`n ne Agyarek=/Abisae?
(b) Twer` ~b` mmienu fan ea edidi so yi mu biara ho.
(i) baakoy`
(ii) ahumm=bor=
(iii) akoko=duru
(iv) p`s`menkomenya
4. (a)
(b) Kyer` emu biara ase a ne ne mmue no k= p`p``p`.
CUSTOMS AND INSTITUTION
Twer` Agyarek= ahoro= nnum.
1. (a) (b)
(c)
~de`n ne akyiwade`?
Twer` akyiwade` ahoro= mmienu ne ho asotwe na kyer ne anti a saa asotwe no fata emu biara.
Kyer` nea y ne nea ny w= saa akyiwade` mmienu yi ho.
WAEC Sample Questions and Schemes
2. (a) ~de`n ne aware`?
(b) Kyer` aware` ho mfaso= nnan.
3. (a) Kyer`kyer` nea didi so= yi ho mfaso= w= awaregye mu.
(i) awarefo= baanu no nkyi nhwehw`mu.
(ii) k=k==k= b=2 740
*TWI (ASANTE) (ELECTIVE) SCHEME OF EXAMINATION)*
There will be two papers, Papers 1 and 2, both of which must be taken.
PAPER 1: Will test candidates’ language skill development. It will consist of four sections, Sections A, B, C and D as follows:
Section A: Four topics for composition will be set and candidates will be required to write an essay on one of them for 40 marks.
Section B: A prose passage will be set in English for translation into the language. The section will carry 20 marks.
Section C: Ten questions will be set on a passage to test candidates’ comprehension of the language. Candidates will be required to answer all the questions for 20 marks.
Section D: A number of items will be set to cover phonology and syntax. The section will carry 40 marks.
The paper shall take 3 hours.
PAPER 2: Will consist of two sections, Sections A and B as follows:
Section A: Will contain two questions, one on Oral Literature and the other on Customs and Institutions. Candidates will be required to
answer only one of the questions for 20 marks.
Section B: Will cover Written Literature. It will consist of three parts, Part I, II and III on prose, drama and poetry respectively. Each part will have two questions and candidates will be required to answer only one question from each part for 20 marks each.
The paper shall take 2 hours 30 minutes.
WAEC Sample Questions and Schemes
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
COMPOSITION
PAPER 1
Fa ns`mfua ahanum twer` dea edidi so= yi mu baako ho as`m.
1. Nnansa yi egyahyehye` ad==so w= y`n dwa mu. Kyer` akwan ahoro= mmi`nsa a `de
egyahyehye` yi ba, na kyer` akwan ahorow mmi`nsa a y`b`fa so asi ano.
2. W=ato nsa afr` wo s` b`ksasa w= sukuu agokansie bi ase w= wo kurom. twer` dea wob`ka akyer` akansifo= w= ber` a w=rebue dwumadi no ano.
3. Twer` krataa k=ma w’adamfo bi a =w= sukuu fofor= bu mu na kyer` mpontudwuma ahoro= mmi`nsabi a wo kyer`kyer`ni panin ay` w= sukuu no mu.
4. Akwan pa a w=rey` w= nkuro ak`se` mu w= =man yi mu de =haw abr` =manfo= a w=te mu no. Kyer` w’adwene.
SYNTAX
1. (a)
(b) Fa =kasasin ahoro= mmi`nsa y` =kasamu.
(c) Twer` =kasamu a
didi so= yi biara na sense adey kasasin a `w= mu ase.
2. (a)
(i) Aberante` no b`ba.
(ii) +b=damfo= no awu.
(iii) Papa no resa w= `dan no mu.
(iv) Maame no ank= dwa mu.
(v) Gyae saa!
Sesa edin ahoro= a w=asensan ase` yi k= dodo= kabea mu.
(i) Papa no kumm =w= no w= h=.
(ii) W=n afuo no ahye.
(iii) Afunumu no adwane.
(iv) Onifrani no t== b=nka no mu.
~de`n ne =kasasin?
(v) Agyanka no dii ohene no at`m.
(b) Sesa ns`mfua a edidi so= yi k= =teb`ka mu.
(i) +kyer`kyer`ni no kaa s`, “Menni aduane no”.
(ii) +barima no kaa s`, “S`be, menye kwase”.
(iii) +b=damfo= no kaa s`, “Firi h= k=”.
(iv) Polisini no kaa s`, “Yeanhunu =kor=mfo= no”.
(v) +kyer`kyer`ni panin no bisaa s`, “Hwan na =baa ha an=pa yi?”
WAEC Sample Questions and Schemes
3. Fa =kasamufa kumaa a 1hy` adaka mu no wie kasamu yi mu biara.
(i) +ka kyer`` me .............. (Edin kasamufa kumaa)
(ii) Ketekye no b`druu .............. (Ber` kyer`fo= kasamufa)
(iii) Y`kuum =w= no a =b`n ............... (Beae` kyer`fo= kasamufa)
(iv) Menim +panin no .............. (Edin nkyer`kyer`mu kasamufa)
(v) Yeboro no ................. (S`nti kyerefo= kasamufa)
4. (a)
(b) Twer` =kasamu ahoro= na ma emu biara ho nhw`so=.
(c) TWer` =kasamu a `didi so= yi mu biara ahoro= mmienu mmienu.
(i) As`nka
(ii) +jy`
(iii) As`mmisa
PHONOLOGY
1. (a) ~de`n ne ~nne?
(b) Twer` ~nne ahoro= mmienu w= Twi kasa mu.
(c) Twer` ~nne dwumadie mmienu w= Twi kasa mu.
(d) Fa nhw`so= nsia (6) kyer`kyer` nsonsonoe` a ~nne de ba ns`mfua a ne twer` y` p`
mu.
2. Fa nhw`so= mmienu twer` as`nsini ahoro= a edidi so= yi my biara w= Twi kasa mu.
(i) A~A
(ii) A~A~
(iii) A~~A
(iv) A~~A~
(v) A~~
3. (a)
Fa nhw`so= mmienu a fata kyer`kyer nnyegyee` a `didi so= yi dwumadie w= Twi kasa mu.
[a] [o] [u] [m] [!]
~de`n ne =kasamu?
(b) Fan hw`so= mmienu kyer`kyer` ~nne Nnyegyee` a `didi so= yi mu biara su .
[u] [`] [=] [i] [a]
4. (a)
(b) Fan hw`so= mmienu a fata kyer`kyer selabolo ahoro= a `w= Twi kasa mu.2 740
Glaze products
C. Primary clays
D. Glass products
10. The Akwete weavers weave on a
A. horizontal loom.
B. vertical loom.
C. table loom.
D. short loom.
PAPER 2 (ESSAY)
SECTION A 1. Write notes on five of the following:
(a) symmetry;
(b) asymmetry;
(c) contrast;
(d) alla prima;
(e) abstract art;
(f) realistic art.
[3 marks] [3 marks] [3 marks] [3 marks] [3 marks] [3 marks]
WAEC Sample Questions and Schemes
2. Describe the process of making a print on fabric in two colours, using a paper cut stencil. [15 marks]
SECTION B
3. State five reasons why diviners patronize traditional West African art.
[15 marks]
[9 marks] [6 marks]
[3 marks] [6 marks] [6 marks]
4. (a)
(b) Write on the influence of West African art on Western art.
Compare the traditional West African art and Western art.
5. (a)
(b) Describe any type of West African mask.
(c) Explain mask as an art form in West Africa.
Define mask.
Write notes on contemporary West African art. African art.
[6 marks] [9 marks]
6. (a)
(b) Highlight the factors responsible for the development of contemporary West
SECTION C
Highlight three characteristics of pre-historic cave paintings.
[6 marks] [9 marks]
[4 marks] [8 marks]
7. (a)
(b) Explain the concept of sympathetic magic in pre-historic art.
8. Write notes on ancient Egyptian art under the following headings:
(a) underlying beliefs;
(b) art forms;
(c) characteristics.
WAEC Sample Questions and Schemes
PAPER 3
SECTION A [DRAWING]
For all candidates
Candidates are to attempt one of the following questions only.
[Drawing from objects]
1. Place an empty bucket beside a chair, close to a good source of light and on top of the chair, place an old lantern. Drape a towel on the backrest of the chair in a way that the towel is seen through the lamp shade.
Draw the objects as arranged.
[Drawing from nature]
2. On a low table covered with a white cloth, place a big pineapple vertically in a tray. On the right side of the pineapple, place a big pawpaw horizontally and in a way that part of it overlaps the pineapple. Place three oranges on the other side of the pine apple.
Draw the fruits as composed.
[Drawing from life]
3. A female model, dressed in a sleeveless blouse and a short tight fitting games wear is sitting on a bench. She looks at something on the floor, resting on her left hand placed on the bench. Her left leg is slightly bent, while the right leg is stretched forward. The right hand rests on her right lap.
Draw the model as posed.
WAEC Sample Questions and Schemes
SECTION B
[CREATIVE DESIGN (2 DIMENSIONAL)]
Answer one question only
Graphic Design
1. A new fruit drink named THIRST BLASTER is to be launched into the market by Sunny Int’l Ltd. This drink is made from a combination of orange and lemon fruits. Design a pictorial poster to advertise the product, incorporating the slogan deeply refreshing.
Picture Making
2. Make an imaginative painting of one of the following topics:
(a). A busy market day.
(b). Two boys and a girl waiting for their turn at the village well. (c). A girl washing clothes at the riverside.
SECTION C
[CREATIVE DESIGN (3 DIMENSIONAL)]
Answer one question only.
1. A philanthropist in your local government area is sponsoring a football competition
among the secondary schools in the locality.
Design and produce a trophy to be presented to the winner. Finish appropriately.
2. Create a relief sculpture on the theme: MOTHER’S LOVE
2 740
VISUAL ART
EXAMINATION SCHEME
The examination consists of three papers: Papers 1, 2, and 3 all of which must be taken. Papers 1 and 2 will be combined in a composite paper and will be taken at one sitting.
Paper 1:
Paper 2:
This paper will contain forty multiple choice objective questions to be taken in 50 minutes for 40 marks.
This paper will consist of three sections: Sections A, B and C covering the following areas of the syllabus:
Paper 3:
The paper will contain a total of eight essay questions. Candidates will be required to answer four questions choosing one question from Section A, two from Section B and one question in Section C. The paper will last 2 hours and carry 60 marks,
Papers 1 and 2 will focus on general knowledge in art, i.e. elements and principles of art; branches, processes, history and appreciation of art; as well as creative design processes. They will also involve tests on the use and care of art tools and materials.
The test in art history will cover both the traditional and contemporary Art of West African countries. It will also cover pre-historic art, ancient Egyptian art and European (Western art). The section on art history will cover specific periods and regions and it is important that candidates should have adequate understanding of the beliefs and attitudes that influenced artists in their work.
The paper shall also have three sections: Sections A, B and C. Candidates for the May/ June diet of the examination shall be required to answer questions in Section A and those in either Section B or C. Those for the November/December diet shall answer questions in Sections A and B only. Details on the questions in the sections are as follows:
Section A: Section B: Section C:
General knowledge in art;
Art of West Africa;
Pre-historic art, Ancient Egyptian art and Western Art.
WAEC Sample Questions and Schemes
Ok
Section A - Drawing
This section will contain three questions, one each on drawing from objects, nature or life, from which candidates shall attempt one question only in 3 hours for 100 marks. The instruction(s) for the section will be given to art teachers/supervisors two weeks before the date of the test. This is to enable the art them obtain the required materials for the test before the day of writing the paper.
Section B - Creative Design (2 - Dimensional)
This section will contain a total of six questions; two each on graphic design, textiles design and picture-making. Candidates will be required to answer one question only in 3 hours for 100 marks. The question paper will be given to candidates at least 2 weeks prior to the day for executing the work, but the art work must be done on the day for the test under appropriate WAEC supervision.
Section C - Creative Design (3 - Dimensional)
This section will contain four questions; one each on sculpture, product design/modeling, ceramics and crafts. Candidates will be required to answer one question only within six months for 100 marks
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
PAPER 1 (OBJECTIVES)
1. Which of the following colours will produce a tint when mixed with another colour?
A. White
B. Yellow
C. Black
D. Red
2. Squeegee is associated with
A. throwing wheel.
WAEC Sample Questions and Schemes
B. printing.
C. painting.
D. glazing.
3. The quality which distinguishes one colour from another is
A. hue.
B. intensity.
C. tint.
D. shade.
4. Preparing a canvas for painting requires the application of
A. gesso.
B. gum.
C. shellac.
D. primer.
5. Which of the following painting media is not applied in liquid form?
A. Poster colour
B. Acrylic
C. Oil colour
D. Pastel
6. Foreshortening is a term associated with
A. drawing.
B. lettering.
C. marbling.
D. printing.
7. It is advisable to pre-wash fabric before dyeing in order to
A. remove sizing.
B. reduce dying time.
C. improve fabric strength.
D. safe dye stuff.
8. Which of the following is the most important factor in designing a poster?
A. Communication
WAEC Sample Questions and Schemes
B. Beautification
C. Decoration
D. Packaging
9. Which of the following is plastic in nature?
A. Secondary clays
B.
2 740
INTEGRATED SCIENCE SCHEME OF EXAMINATION
There will be three papers, Papers 1, 2 and 3 all of which must be taken. Papers 1 and 2 will be a composite paper to be taken at one sitting.
PAPER 1: Will consist of fifty multiple-choice objective questions all of which must be answered within 1 hour for 50 marks.
PAPER 2: Will consist of six essay-type questions. Candidates will be required to answer four questions within 1 hour 30 minutes for 20 marks each.
PAPER 3: Will consist of four questions on test of practical work. Candidates will be required to answer all the questions within 2 hours for 60 marks.
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
1. The pH of water is A. 2.
B. 5. C. 7. D. 14.
PAPER 1 (OBJECTIVE TEST)
2. One characteristic feature of Kingdom Animalia is the possession of A. celluse cell wall.
B. nervous system. C. starch granules. D. chlorophyll.
3. Which of the following statements explains the occurrence of large number of carbon compounds? Carbon
A. is present in all living things
B. atom is tetravalent element
C. compounds dissolve readily in organic solvents D. compounds burn readily in air
WAEC Sample Questions and Schemes
4. The instrument used to measure diameter of a thin wire is A. thread and rule.
B. engineer’s callipers.
C. micrometer screw gauge. D. spherometer.
5. A species X has 16 protons, 17 neutrons and 18 electrons. X must be A. neutral atom equal of a metal.
B. a cation of two positive charges.
C. an anion of two negative charges.
D. an anion of one negative charge.
6. The main effect of diseases on crops is A. reduction in photosynthesis.
B. inhability of roots to absorb water. C. shortening of internodes.
D. reduction in the yield of produce.
7. A car fuse is marked 15A and operates on a 12 volt battery. Determine the resistance of the fuse wire.
A. 0.8 ohms B. 1.3 ohms C. 3.00 ohms D. 27.00 ohms
8. Rabbits are housed in a A. pen.
B. hutch. C. kraal. D. sty.
9. Which of the following parts of a mammalian skin protects the tissues beneath from mechanical injury?
A. Dermis
B. Cornified layer C. Granular layer D. Malphigian layer
10. An element which can be considered as a semi-metal is A. argon.
B. carbon. C. silicon. D. sodium.
WAEC Sample Questions and Schemes
11. Respiration is essential to life since A. food is oxidised.
B. oxygen is used up.
C. waste products are eliminated. D. energy is released.
12. Which of the following statements about the importance of mulching are correct? I. Prevention of the surface of soil from caking
II. Conservation of moisture
III. Washing away of dissolved nutrients
IV. Keeping the soil cool A. I and II only
B. III and IV only
C. I, II and III only
D. I, II and IV only
13. A pulley system is used to lift a load of 300N. If the effort applied is 150N, determine the mechanical advantage of the system.
A. 0.5
B. 2.0
C. 150 D. 450
14. The easiest method of fertilizer application is A. band application.
B. broadcasting.
C. ring application. D. spraying.
15. Which of the following characteristic features are associated with insect-pollinated flower?
I. Brightly coloured petals II. Large petals
III. Horny guider
IV. Pendulous stamen
A. I and II only
B. III and IV only C. I, II and III only D. I, II and IV only
PAPER 2 (ESSAY)
WAEC Sample Questions and Schemes
What is a transistor? Explain the term poultry.
1. (a) (i)
(ii) Explain how a transistor behaves as a switch.
[5 marks] [6 marks]
[5 marks] [4marks]
[5 marks]
(b) (c)
(i)
(ii) State four reasons for keeping poultry.
Explain the following terms: (i) population;
(ii) species.
(d) (i) What are x-rays?
(ii) State two dangers associated with over exposure to x-rays.
2. (a) (i) What is plant tissue culture?
(ii) State three advantages of propagating a plant by tissue culture.
(b) (c)
(d)
amount, in 3. (a)
(i) Explain the term parturition as applied to animal production.
(ii) State three signs shown by an animal when parturition is about to occur.
[5 marks]
Draw and label a ray diagram to show how the image of a point object is seen in a plane mirror. [5 marks]
2 740
AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE EXAMINATION SCHEME
There will be three papers: Papers 1, 2 and 3 all of which must be taken. Papers 1 and 2 will be a composite paper to be taken at one sitting.
PAPER 1: PAPER 2:
PAPER 3:
Will consist of fifty multiple choice questions to be answered within 50 minutes for 50 marks.
Will consist of six essay questions with each drawn from at least two themes in the syllabus. Candidates will be required to answer five of the questions within 2 hours 10 minutes for 90 marks.
Will be a practical paper for school candidates and alternative to practical paper for private candidates. It will consist of four questions, all of which should be answered within 11⁄2 hours for 60 marks.
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Paper 1 (Objective)
1. The device which helps to regulate heat in an incubator is the
A. thermometer. B. hygrometer. C. insulator.
D. thermostat.
2. Which of the following statements about crop production is not correct?
A. Onions are commonly grown in the rainforest zones.
B. Yam, cocoyam and cassava are grown in both the rainforest and the
savanna regions.
C. Some foreign vegetable crops are grown in and around urban centres.
D. Carrots are commonly grown in the savanna and moist vegetation belts.
3. Which of the following is a disadvantage of surface irrigation?
A. The quantity of water lost is high.
B. Water is evenly distributed over the farmland
C. It is very cheap to operate.
D. The system is suitable for paddy rice cultivation.
WAEC Sample Questions and Schemes -
4. Fine soil tilth is produced by the use of
A. harrow. B. plough. C. ridger. D. mower.
5. The problems of farm mechanization in West Africa include the following except
(1) (a)
(b) (c) (d)
(2) (a) (b)
(c) (d)
(3) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(e)
A. reduction of farm drudgery.
B. small farm holdings.
C. poverty of farmers.
D. poor topography.
Paper 2 (Essay)
Explain each of the following terms as used in animal production:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
dipping; dry cow; culling; quarantine.
[8 marks]
[4 marks] [2 marks] [4 marks]
Describe the life cycle of roundworm (Ascaris lumbricoides). Explain the term farm mechanization.
Name four tractor coupled implements
State six limitations of farm mechanization in West Africa.
Suggest six ways of encouraging farm mechanization in West Africa.
[6 marks] List four methods of identification in cattle management. [4 marks]
What is debeaking in poultry management? [2 marks] Mention two processes that release carbon dioxide into the atmosphere[2 marks]
Name four storage pests of crops
State two functions of Potassium in crops.
List three ways by which each of the following biotic factors
affects agricultural production:
(i) parasites;
(ii) soil organisms.
State four advantages of zero tillage.
[4 marks] [2 marks]
[6 marks] [4 marks]
[6 marks]
WAEC Sample Questions and Scheme
(Instruction) Specimens A – Granite
B – Limestone C – Marble
PAPER 3 (PRACTICAL)
1.(a) Identify specimens A, B and C.
(b) Classify specimens A, B and C according to their mode of formation. [3 marks]
(c) State three characteristics of each of specimens A, B and C.
2. (a) Differentiate between specimens A and B
(b) State four ways in which specimen A is important (c) Describe the formation of specimen A
[3 marks] [9 marks]
[ 6 marks ] [ 4 marks ] [ 5 marks ]
2 740
AIR-CONDITIONING AND REFRIGERATION EXAMINATION SCHEME
There will be three papers, Papers 1, 2 and 3, all of which must be taken. Papers 1 and 2 shall be a composite paper to be taken at one sitting.
PAPER 1: PAPER 2: PAPER 3:
will consist of forty multiple-choice objective questions all of which are to be answered in 1 hour for 40 marks.
will consist of five essay questions. Candidates will be required to answer any four in 11⁄2 hours for 60 marks.
will be a practical test of 2 hour duration. It will consist of two compulsory questions for 100 marks.
A list of materials shall be made available to the schools not less than two weeks before the paper is taken for material procurement and relevant preparation. Candidates will be expected to report at the examination venue to carry out the task in the presence of the examiner.
ALTERNATIVE TO PRACTICAL TEST
The Council may consider testing candidates’ ability in practical work as prescribed in the syllabus in the event that materials for the actual practical test cannot be acquired. For this alternative test, there will be two compulsory sets of written questions to be answered in 2 hours for 100 marks.
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
PAPER 1 (OBJECTIVE)
1. Which of the following is NOT a property of an ideal refrigerant?
A. High specific heat
B. Stability in complete cycle
C. Large latent heat of vaporization
D. High critical temperature
WAEC Sample Questions and Schemes -
2. Wet bulb depression comes to zero when the air is fully
A. saturated.
B. wet.
C. dry.
D. vaporized.
3. Which of the following is NOT a component of a vapour compression refrigeration system?
A. Compressor
B. Evaporator
C. Absorber
D. Condenser
4. The heat transfer during an adiabatic process is
A. reversible.
B. irreversible.
C. zero.
D. normal.
5. The material used in the refrigeration drier to absorb the moisture is the
A. calcium chloride.
B. silica gel.
C. calcium sulphate.
D. sodium hydroxide.
6. Heat absorption in refrigeration system takes place in the
A. condenser.
B. control.
C. compressor.
D. evaporator.
WAEC Sample Questions and Schemes - Uploaded online by
7. A temperature of - 40oF on the celcius scale is
A. -OoC.
B. -38oC.
C. -40oC.
D. -50oC.
8. The commonly used refrigerant in a domestic refrigerator is
A. R–717.
B. R–764.
C. R – 600A.
D. R – 290A.
9. The expansion of the refrigerant in a domestic refrigerator takes place in the
A. accumulator.
B. drier.
C. control.
D. stainer.
10. Silica gel is used to absorb moisture from refrigerant in the
A. compressor.
B. condenser.
C. drier.
D. evaporator.
WAEC Sample Questions and Schemes - Uploaded online by
1. (a)
PAPER 2 (ESSAY)
List three types of refrigerant controls that are commonly used in refrigeration and air conditioning systems.
2. (a)
State four advantages an individual will have over partnering with another person in a business of refrigeration and air conditioning.
(b) (i) Sketch a capillary tube control.
(ii) State the application of the capillary tube control sketched in (b)(i).
(c) State three sources of financing an air conditioning and refrigeration business costing 1.5 millon naira.
(b) Sketch the vapour compression refrigeration system.
(c) label any three parts of the sketch in (b).
3. (a)
(b) List the cylinder colour code for each of the following:
(i) R – 134a;
(ii) R – 717;
(iii) R – 600wa.
State three properties of a refrigerant.
WAEC Sample Questions and Schemes - Uploaded online by
PAPER 3 (PRACTICAL PROJECT)
1. Using the material provided below, construct an evaporator suitable for 1/8 hp refrigerator
(a) 1⁄4 copper piper (1⁄2 roll);
(b) aluminium flat plate 1200mm x 1000 mm x 16 mm;
(c) mallet;
(d) rivet gun;
(e) rivet pin;
(f) punch;
(g) bending spring;
(h) snip;
(i) steel.
2. Using appropriate tools and equipment produce the following joints by brazing T, V, B and K
