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C. Held by bondholders D. Issued for the first time 38. Sarah deposits SR 2,000 for 3 years at an annual interest rate of 6%. According to the following formula: FVn = PV(1 + r)n What is the future value? A. SR 2,120.00 B. SR 2,247.20 C. SR 2,382.03 D. SR 2,600.00 39. What is the present value of SR 5,000 to be received after 2 years if the discount rate is 10%, according to the following formula: PV = FVn / (1 + r)n A. SR 3,950.00 B. SR 4,132.23 C. SR 4,545.45 D. SR 5,500.00 رياضيات للتمويل

1. Present value is the opposite of future value. 2. Money received today is generally worth less than the same amount received in the future. 3. A bondholder is considered a creditor of the company. 4. Compound interest earns interest on both principal and previously earned interest. 5. Future value decreases as the interest rate increases. 6. A bond is a short-term equity instrument. 7. Bond prices usually increase when market interest rates increase. 8. Preferred stockholders have priority over common stockholders in dividend payments. 9. A company's book value per share can be calculated using total assets and total liabilities. 10. Treasury stock refers to bonds issued by the government. 11. Equity holders are owners of the company. 12. Common stockholders are residual owners of the firm. 13. Preferred stockholders usually receive fixed dividends. 14. A portfolio containing many unrelated assets may reduce overall risk. 15. The expected return of an investment is always guaranteed. 16. Systematic risk cannot be eliminated through diversification. 17. Perfectly negatively correlated assets have a correlation coefficient of +1. 18. Standard deviation is a common measure of investment risk. 19. An increase in inflation expectations may increase nominal interest rates. 20. Risk-averse investors prefer higher-risk investments regardless of return. 21. Discounting is the process of finding: A. Coupon payment B. Future value C. Present value D. Growth rate 22. An annuity is best described as: A. Unequal cash flows B. Equal periodic cash flows C. One-time payment D. Stock dividend 23. A bond's coupon rate is based on its: A. Market value B. Book value C. Par value D. Liquidation value 24. Which document specifies the rights of bondholders and duties of the issuer? A. Balance sheet B. Bond indenture C. Prospectus D. Proxy statement 25. Equity financing is obtained mainly through: A. Bonds B. Bank loans C. Common stock D. Notes payable 26. Common stockholders are also known as: A. Debt holders B. Residual owners C. Trustees D. Bondholders 27. Preferred stockholders usually receive: A. Fixed dividends B. Unlimited liability C. Voting control D. Guaranteed capital gains 28. Venture capital is commonly used to finance: A. Mature firms only B. Government projects C. Early-stage firms D. Bond markets 29. Risk is best defined as: A. Guaranteed return B. Uncertainty surrounding returns C. Total assets D. Dividend growth 30. Return on an investment includes: A. Cash distributions only B. Capital gains only C. Cash distributions and price changes D. Taxes only 31. Which measure is commonly used to measure investment risk? A. Dividend yield B. Standard deviation C. Current ratio D. Inventory turnover 32. The coefficient of variation measures: A. Bond maturity B. Relative risk C. Dividend growth D. Inflation rate 33. Portfolio return is calculated as the: A. Weighted average of asset returns B. Sum of liabilities C. Market return only D. Dividend payout ratio 34. Correlation measures the: A. Profitability of a company B. Relationship between returns C. Dividend payout D. Growth in sales 35. Diversification works best when investments are: A. Perfectly positively correlated B. Low or negatively correlated C. Identical in risk D. Risk-free only 36. Risk-neutral investors usually choose investments with: A. Lowest risk only B. Highest return regardless of risk C. Guaranteed dividends only D. No uncertainty 37. Treasury stock consists of shares: A. Sold to the public B. Repurchased by the company

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a) act as conductor b) generate electrons c) increase holes d) act as an insulating barrier 28. Conduction band contains ............ a) free electrons b) holes only c) bonding electrons d) protons 29. A battery is a ............ a) device that produces electricity b) device that stores chemical energy c) source of electrons d) source of protons 30. A battery is ............ a) an electrochemical cell b) a solar cell c) a resistor d) two atoms 31. Semiconductors have ............ a) no band gap b) negative band gap c) small band gap d) large band gap 32. Copper is widely used in microelectronics because of ............ a) low resistivity b) high resistivity c) high weight d) low conductivity 33. Oxidation refers to ............ a) loss of atoms b) gain of electrons c) loss of electrons d) gain of energy 34. Charging a battery means ............ a) heat to energy b) chemical energy to electrical energy c) chemical energy to heat d) chemical energy to electrical energy 35. A reducing agent ............ a) donates electrons b) accepts electrons c) gains atoms d) loses atoms 36. Which of the following is an example of an intrinsic semiconductor ? a) doped silicon b) boron c) pure silicon d) phosphorus 37. In a battery, electrons are released at the ............ a) cathode b) electrolyte c) circuit d) anode 38. Which device helps remove heat ? a) Heat sink b) Sensor c) Display d) Battery 39. Electrochemical cell converts ............ a) chemical to electrical energy b) nuclear to heat c) heat to light d) electrical energy to chemical energy 40. Which of the following is removed during water cleaning? a) Dust only b) Only metallic contaminants c) Only oxide layers d) Dust, organic contaminants and metal ions

Serial number: D Choose the most correct answer: 1. How is an n-type semiconductor formed ? a) By removing electrons b) By adding acceptor impurities c) By doping with donor impurities d) By heating 2. Heat dissipation is important to ............ a) Increase size b) Change color c) Improve performance d) Reduce voltage 3. Lithium-ion batteries are known for ............ a) low energy density b) high energy density and rechargeability c) heavy weight d) short life 4. What does a pH value below 7 indicate ? a) Basic solution b) Natural solution c) Highly alkaline solution d) Acidic solution 5. In intrinsic semiconductors, what is the relationship between electrons and holes ? a) Electrons are more than holes b) Electrons equal holes c) Holes are more than electrons d) No charge carriers exist 6. Heat in electronic devices is generated due to ............ a) light only b) electrical resistance and switching of transistors c) pressure d) volume 7. In p-type semiconductors, the majority carriers are ............ a) electrons b) neutrons c) protons d) holes 8. High temperature affects efficiency by ............ a) increasing it b) doubling it c) decreasing it d) no effect 9. Light absorption is used in ............ a) sensors b) wiring c) batteries d) heat sinks 10. In electroplating, the substrate acts as the ............ a) anode b) cathode c) circuit d) electrolyte 11. Cooling methods in electronics include ............ a) insulators b) batteries c) fans and liquid cooling systems d) heating systems 12. Battery performance depends on ............ a) color b) energy density and temperature c) shape d) size only 13. Which is an insulator ? a) Copper b) Aluminum c) Glass d) Silicon 14. LEDs operate based on ............ a) pressure b) light emission c) heat d) motion 15. What is the electron configuration of ₁₄Si ? a) 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p² b) 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p⁶ c) 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p⁴ d) 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p⁶4s¹ 16. Number of p-orbitals per shell is ............ a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 17. What is a characteristic of ionic bonds? a) Low melting point b) High conductivity in solid c) High melting point d) Weak structure 18. What is the electron configuration of P atom in the PCl₃ ion ? a) 2, 5 b) 2, 8, 2 c) 2, 8, 5 d) 2, 8, 8 19. ............ are formed when electrons are lost. a) Cations b) Molecules c) Anions d) Neutrals 20. Calculate the standard cell potential (E°cell) of the following cell reaction: Zn + Cu²⁺ → Zn²⁺ + Cu Given: E°red Zn/Zn²⁺ = -0.76 V, E°red Cu/Cu²⁺ = +0.34 V a) -0.42 V b) 1.10 V c) -1.10 V d) 0.42 V 21. What is doping ? a) Adding a large amount of impurities b) Removing electrons from a semiconductor c) Adding the semiconductor d) Adding a small controlled amount of impurity atoms 22. Holes in the semi-conductor are created by : ............ a) Adding electrons b) thermal agitation c) heat d) ionization 23. Conductors have ............ a) many free electrons b) few electrons c) fixed electrons d) no electrons 24. Donor impurities are characterized by : ............ a) having more valence electrons b) having less valence electrons c) being neutral d) being metallic 25. Intrinsic semiconductors have : ............ a) high conductivity b) variable conductivity c) low conductivity d) no atoms 26. Ionic bonding involves ............ a) transfer of electrons b) sharing electrons c) nuclear fusion d) free electron movement 27. The function of the depletion region is to ............

الإحصاء والاحتمالات للحوسبة

Statistics Probabilities for Computing – Final exam, A Question (1) – (36 Marks): Choose the correct answer: For the given sample data 34 30 24 20 18 12 compute the following: 1. The sample size is: (A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7 2. The highest value is: (A) 30 (B) 34 (C) 24 (D) 18 3. The mean is: (A) 22 (B) 23 (C) 24 (D) 25 4. The median is: (A) 20 (B) 22 (C) 24 (D) 27 5. The mode is: (A) 12 (B) 24 (C) 34 (D) No mode 6. The range is: (A) 18 (B) 20 (C) 22 (D) 24 7. The midrange is: (A) 21 (B) 23 (C) 24 (D) 25 8. The sample variance s² is: (A) 54.33 (B) 65.20 (C) 70.44 (D) 73.50 9. The sample standard deviation s is: (A) 7.50 (B) 8.07 (C) 8.50 (D) 9.50 --- The following table gives the frequency distribution of scores of 30 students on physics exam: Class limits (scores) Frequency 5–12 3 13–20 7 21–28 10 29–36 6 37–44 4 Compute the following from (5 – 12): 10. The class width is: (A) 8 (B) 9 (C) 10 (D) None of these 11. The midpoint of the class 29 – 36 is: (A) 30.5 (B) 31.5 (C) 32.5 (D) None of these 12. The class boundary of class 13 – 20 is: (A) 12.5 – 20.5 (B) 13.5 – 20.5 (C) 13 – 20 (D) None of these 13. If 2 dice are rolled, how many different outcomes are there: (A) 36 (B) 6 (C) 216 (D) 9 14. If events A and B are independent, then P(A and B) is: (A) P(A) + P(B) (B) P(A) · P(B) (C) P(A) − P(B) (D) P(A)/P(B) 15. If a die is rolled one time, what is the probability of getting the number set 8: (A) 0 (B) 1/6 (C) 1/2 (D) None of these 16. If a die is rolled one time, what is the probability of getting the number set {2,3,5}: (A) 0 (B) 1/6 (C) 3/6 (D) None of these 17. If a die is rolled one time, what is the probability of getting a number less than 9: (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 0.5 (D) None of these 18. A coin is flipped and a die is rolled. The probability of getting a head on the coin and a 3 on the die: (A) P(H and 3) = 1/2 · 1/6 (B) P(H and 3) = 1/2 · 3/6 (C) None of these 19. A card is drawn from a deck and replaced, then a second card is drawn. The probability of getting 2 jacks: (A) P(2 jacks) = 4/52 · 4/52 (B) P(2 jacks) = 4/52 · 3/52 (C) None of these 20. How many permutations of 5 objects (n = 5) are there, selected 3 at a time (r = 3)? (A) 30 (B) 60 (C) 90 (D) None of these 21. How many combinations of 5 objects (n = 5) are there, selected 3 at a time (r = 3)? (A) 2 (B) 5 (C) 10 (D) None of these 22. The sample space of tossing two coins at the same time is: (A) {HH, HT, TT} (B) {HH, TT} (C) {HH, HT, TH, TT} (D) None of these 23. Example of a quantity variable: (A) Type of the blood test (B) Number of students in class (C) None of these 24. When a single card is drawn from a deck, determine whether the following events are mutually exclusive or not mutually exclusive: Getting a heart, getting a 5. (A) mutually exclusive (B) not mutually exclusive --- Section (2) – (4 Marks): Complete the following data and choose the correct answer: x y xy x² y² 2 1 4 4 5 3 7 9 9 11 Σx = _ Σy = _ Σxy = _ Σx² = _ Σy² = ___ Calculate the following: 25. Compute the linear correlation coefficient where r = [n(Σxy) − (Σx)(Σy)] / √[ [n(Σx²) − (Σx)²] [n(Σy²) − (Σy)²] ] (A) 0.71 (B) 0.83 (C) 0.96 (D) None of these 26. The equation of linear regression where a = [(Σy)(Σx²) − (Σx)(Σxy)] / [n(Σx²) − (Σx)²] b = [n(Σxy) − (Σx)(Σy)] / [n(Σx²) − (Σx)²] (A) y' = 1.5 + 2.5x (B) y' = 2.5 + 1.5x (C) y' = −2.5 + 1.5x (D) y' = −1.5 + 2.5x

تفاضل 2

(A) ∫{π/2}^{3π/2} sin x dx (B) −∫{π/2}^{3π/2} sin x dx (C) −∫{π/2}^{π} sin x dx + ∫{π}^{3π/2} sin x dx (D) ∫{π/2}^{π} sin x dx − ∫{π}^{3π/2} sin x dx 31. Find the volume of the solid of revolution obtained by revolving the plane region R bounded by y = x³, the x-axis, and the lines x = 0, x = 1 about the x-axis. (A) π/7 (B) π/5 (C) π (D) π/3

Calculus 2 (MTH1102) – Page 2 of 7 1. ∫ (2x³ + 5x)⁵(6x² + 5) dx (A) (2x³+5x)⁶/6 + C (B) (2x³ + 5x)⁵ + C (C) (2x³+5x)⁶/2 + C (D) 5(x³ + 5x)⁵ + C 2. If f is an odd function then ∫₋ₐᵃ f(x) dx = (A) 0 (B) 2 ∫₀ᵃ f(x) dx (C) ∫₀ᵃ f(x) dx (D) 2f(x) 3. Evaluate ∫₀^{π/2} cos x dx. (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 1/2 (D) −1 4. ∫ sin¹⁰ x cos x dx = (A) (1/11)cos¹¹ x + C (B) (1/11)sin¹¹ x + C (C) −10cos⁹ x sin x + C (D) (1/11)cos¹¹ x sin x + C 5. d/dx ∫₁^{x+1} √(t−1) dt = (A) √(4x+2) (B) 8√x (C) 4√(4x+2) (D) 2√(x−1) 6. Find the average value of the function defined by f(x) = x³ on the interval [0, 2]. (A) 8 (B) 1 (C) 4 (D) 2 7. Evaluate d/dx ln(3x+2) |_{x=1}. (A) 3 (B) 5/3 (C) 1/5 (D) 3/5 8. Evaluate ∫ x²/(x³ + 5) dx. (A) ln(x³ + 5) + C (B) (1/3) ln(x³ + 5) + C (C) 3 ln(x³ + 5) + C (D) 1/(x³ + 5) + C 9. Compute d/dx ln(e^{3x} + 2). (A) e^{3x}/(e^{3x} + 2) (B) 3/(e^{3x} + 2) (C) 3e^{3x}/(e^{3x} + 2) (D) 3e^{3x} + 2 --- Calculus 2 (MTH1102) – Page 3 of 7 10. For a > 0 and a ≠ 1, find d/dx (aˣ). (A) ln(aˣ) (B) aˣ ln a (C) 1/aˣ (D) xaˣ⁻¹ 11. Find d/dx (tan⁻¹(5x)). (A) 1/(1 + (5x)²) (B) 5/(1 + (5x)²) (C) 5/√(1 − (5x)²) (D) −5/(1 + (5x)²) 12. Evaluate ∫ 1/√(9 − x²) dx. (A) sin⁻¹(x/3) + C (B) tan⁻¹(x/3) + C (C) ln|9 − x²| + C (D) cos⁻¹(x/3) + C 13. A fundamental identity for hyperbolic functions is (A) sinh(x+y) = sinh x − sinh y (B) cosh² x + sinh² x = 1 (C) cosh² x − sinh² x = 1 (D) 1 + tanh² x = sech² x 14. The inverse function of y = eˣ is (A) y = xᵉ (B) y = log₁₀ x (C) y = e^{ln x} (D) y = ln x 15. Evaluate ∫ e^{7x} dx. (A) (1/7)e^{7x} + C (B) e^{7x} + C (C) (1/7)eˣ + C (D) 7e^{7x} + C 16. ∫ cos 3x cos 2x dx = (A) (1/2)sin x + (1/10)sin 5x + C (B) (1/2)cos x + (1/10)cos 5x + C (C) (1/2)sin x + (1/2)sin 5x + C (D) sin x + (1/10)sin 5x + C 17. If x = 2 tan t, then √(4 + x²) = (A) 4 sec t (B) 2 tan t (C) 2 cos t (D) 2 sec t --- Calculus 2 (MTH1102) – Page 4 of 7 18. ∫ x√(x−5) dx = (A) (2/5)(x−5)^{5/2} + (10/3)(x−5)^{3/2} + C (B) (2/5)(x−5)^{5/2} − (10/3)(x−5)^{3/2} + C (C) (2/5)(x−5)^{5/2} + (10/3)(x−5)^{3/2} + C (D) (2/5)(x−5)^{5/2} − (10/3)(x−5)^{3/2} + C 19. If x/(x−3)² = A/(x−3) + B/(x−3)², then (A, B) = (A) (1, 3) (B) (1, −3) (C) (−1, −3) (D) (−1, 3) 20. Given that (7x+1)/(x²+x−6) = 3/(x−2) + 4/(x+3), find ∫ (7x+1)/(x²+x−6) dx. (A) 3 ln|x−2| + 4 ln|x+3| + C (B) 3 ln|x+2| + 4 ln|x−3| + C (C) ln|x²+x−6| + C (D) 4 ln|x−2| + 3 ln|x+3| + C 21. Evaluate lim_{x→0} (eˣ − e⁻ˣ)/sin x. (A) 1 (B) −1 (C) 0 (D) 2 22. Evaluate lim_{x→−2} (x²−x−6)/(x²+4x+4). (A) −∞ (B) 0 (C) −1 (D) ∞ 23. Evaluate lim_{x→∞} ln(x³)/ln x. (A) 1 (B) ∞ (C) 3 (D) 0 24. The limit lim_{x→∞} (1 + 3/x)ˣ is of which indeterminate form? (A) 1^∞ (B) ∞^0 (C) 0/0 (D) 0^0 --- Calculus 2 (MTH1102) – Page 5 of 7 25. ∫₁^∞ 1/xᵖ dx converges if and only if (A) p ≥ 1 (B) p ≤ 1 (C) p > 1 (D) p < 1 26. ∫₋∞⁴ 1/x^{2/3} dx is defined by (A) lim_{b→−∞} ∫b⁴ 1/x^{2/3} dx (B) lim{a→−∞} ∫a⁴ 1/x^{2/3} dx (C) lim{a→−∞} ∫a⁴ 1/x^{2/3} dx (D) lim{a→−∞} ∫_a⁴ 1/x^{2/3} dx 27. Which of the following is an improper integral with an infinite integrand? (A) ∫₂⁵ 1/x dx (B) ∫₁^∞ 1/x dx (C) ∫₀¹ 1/x dx (D) ∫₋₁¹ 1/x dx 28. Considered as an improper integral, ∫₀¹ 1/√x dx = (A) 2 (B) 3/2 (C) 1 (D) 0 29. Find the area of the region R bounded by the curves y = √x, y = x, and the lines x = 0 and x = 1. (A) 2/3 (B) 1/2 (C) 1/3 (D) 1/6 --- Calculus 2 (MTH1102) – Page 6 of 7 30. Set up definite integrals for the area of the region R bounded by y = sin x, the segment of the x-axis between x = π/2 and x = 3π/2, and the lines x = π/2 and x = 3π/2.