Infinity academy |4th stage

سؤال رقم 100 اجا نصاً تقريباً ٢٨-٣٥ سؤال اجوا بالاسئلة بفكرة مماثلة او نصاً الحمدلله حتى لو بس طالب واحد استفاد افرح ان شاءالله بعد كل امتحان انزل شي مقارب

فضل من الله توفرت المرشحات والملخصات يم pharmacoffe ضمان واطمئنان بالامتحان

هاي مرشحات الا مايجي منها فد ١٥-٢٠

أهم النقاط المرشحة مقسمة حسب المواضيع: 1. آليات العمل (Mechanisms of Action) - "الأكثر شيوعاً" المسكنات الأفيونية: ترتبط بمستقبلات Mu (μ) بشكل أساسي لتسكين الألم. الديجوكسين (Digoxin): يعمل عن طريق تثبيط إنزيم Na+/K+-ATPase. الستاتينات (Statins): تثبيط إنزيم HMG CoA reductase، وهو الخطوة المحددة لسرعة تصنيع الكوليسترول. مدرات البول: الثيازيد: يعمل في الأنبوب الملتوي البعيد (Distal tubule). مدرات العروة (Loop): تعمل في الجزء الصاعد من عروة هنلي. أدوية المعدة (PPIs): ترتبط بنظام إنزيم H+/K+-ATPase (مضخة البروتون) وتمنع إفراز أيونات الهيدروجين. الوارفارين: يثبط إنزيم Vitamin K epoxide reductase. 2. الآثار الجانبية "المميزة" (Pathognomonic Side Effects) مثبطات ACE: السعال الجاف (Dry cough) بسبب زيادة مستوى البراديكينين. المورفين: ضيق حدقة العين الشديد (Pinpoint pupil). النياسين: التوهج الجلدي (Flushing) والشعور بالحرارة. سبيرونولاكتون: تثدي الرجال (Gynecomastia). الهيدرالازين: متلازمة تشبه الذئبة (Lupus-like syndrome). الستاتينات: انحلال العضلات المخططة (Rhabdomyolysis). فيراباميل: الإمساك (Constipation). الكورتيكوستيرويدات المستنشقة: كانديدا الفم (Oropharyngeal candidiasis). 3. التفاعلات الدوائية والتحذيرات الهامة ليفودوبا (Levodopa): يتأثر بـ فيتامين B6 (Pyridoxine) الذي يزيد من تكسيره في الأطراف ويقلل فعاليته. النترات (Nitrates): يمنع تماماً استخدامها مع مثبطات PDE5 (مثل السيلدينافيل/الفياجرا) لتجنب انخفاض الضغط القاتل. كلوبيدوجريل (Clopidogrel): لا يجوز استخدامه مع الأوميبرازول لأنه يثبط إنزيم CYP2C19 اللازم لتنشيطه. الوارفارين والستاتينات: كلاهما ممنوع تماماً في الحمل (Teratogenic). الديجوكسين: نقص البوتاسيوم (Hypokalemia) يزيد من خطر سمية الديجوكسين. 4. الاستخدامات السريرية النوعية (Specific Therapeutic Uses) إيميبرامين (Imipramine): يستخدم لعلاج التبول اللاإرادي عند الأطفال. ميزوبروستول (Misoprostol): يستخدم للوقاية من القرحة الناتجة عن مسكنات NSAIDs. الديازبام (Diazepam): هو العلاج الأول لحالة الصرع المستمر (Status epilepticus). الأدينوسين/النترات: النترات تحت اللسان هي الخيار الأول للراحة السريعة من نوبة الذبحة الصدرية الحادة. الكاربامازيبين: يستخدم لعلاج ألم العصب ثلاثي التوائم (Trigeminal neuralgia). 5. المتلازمات والظواهر الخاصة ظاهرة سرقة الدم التاجي (Coronary steal): مرتبطة بدواء الدايبيريدامول في حالات الذبحة غير المستقرة. تحمل النترات (Nitrate Tolerance): يتطلب فترة خالية من الدواء (10-12 ساعة) لاستعادة الحساسية. نقص السكر: بيتا بلوكرز (B-blockers) قد تخفي أعراض نقص السكر في الدم لدى مرضى السكري. .

كل السايد ايفيكت المشهور والسيندرومات

للأعراض الجانبية (Side Effects) المميزة لكل مجموعة علاجية، بالإضافة إلى المتلازمات (Syndromes) المذكورة وأسبابها: أولاً: الأعراض الجانبية المميزة (Unique/Characteristic Side Effects) المسكنات الأفيونية (Narcotic Analgesics): المورفين (Morphine): ضيق حدقة العين الشديد (Pinpoint pupil)، إطلاق الهيستامين الذي يسبب الحكة والتعرق، وزيادة ضغط السائل الشوكي (لذا يمنع في إصابات الرأس). الترامادول (Tramadol): زيادة خطر الإصابة بالتشنجات (Seizures)، خاصة عند استخدامه مع مضادات الاكتئاب. مضادات الاكتئاب (Antidepressants): مجموعة SSRIs: خلل الوظيفة الجنسية (Sexual dysfunction) ونقص صوديوم الدم. البروبيون (Bupropion): خطر تشنجات يعتمد على الجرعة. مضادات الاكتئاب ثلاثية الحلقات (TCAs): آثار مضادة للكولين مثل جفاف الفم، زغللة العين، واحتباس البول. مجموعة MAOIs: أزمة فرط ضغط الدم (Hypertensive crisis) عند تناول أطعمة تحتوي على التيرامين. الليثيوم (Lithium): رعشة اليد الدقيقة، عطش مفرط (Polydipsia)، وتأثيرات على الغدة الدرقية. مضادات الصرع (Antiepileptics): الكاربامازيبين (Carbamazepine): نقص الكريات البيض الحميد، والرؤية المزدوجة (Diplopia). البريجابالين (Pregabalin): زيادة الوزن ووذمة محيطية (Peripheral edema). الفالبروات (Valproate): سمية الكبد وتشوهات الأجنة. علاجات باركنسون (Anti-Parkinson's): ليفودوبا (Levodopa): تلون اللعاب والبول باللون البني (بسبب أكسدة الكاتيكولامين) وحركات لاإرادية (Dyskinesias). تولكابون (Tolcapone): نخر كبدي خاطف (Fulminating hepatic necrosis). بروموكريبتين (Bromocriptine): تليف رئوي وخلف الصفاق. أمانتادين (Amantadine): ذهان سمي حاد. مدرات البول وأدوية الضغط (Diuretics & Antihypertensives): الثيازيد (Thiazides): زيادة حمض اليوريك (Gout) وزيادة سكر الدم. مدرات العروة (Loop Diuretics): السمية الأذنية (Ototoxicity) أو فقدان السمع. سبيرونولاكتون (Spironolactone): تثدي الرجال (Gynecomastia). مثبطات ACE: سعال جاف مستمر (Dry cough) ووذمة وعائية (Angioedema). هيدرالازين (Hydralazine): متلازمة تشبه اللوبس (Lupus-like syndrome). مينوكسيديل (Minoxidil): فرط نمو الشعر (Hypertrichosis). فيراباميل (Verapamil): الإمساك وتضخم اللثة. أدوية القلب والدهون (Heart & Lipid Drugs): الديجوكسين (Digoxin): رؤية صفراء (Xanthopsia) واضطرابات بصرية. الستاتينات (Statins): انحلال العضلات المخططة (Rhabdomyolysis) وآلام عضلية. النياسين (Niacin): توهج جلدي شديد (Flushing) وشعور بالحرارة. الفايبرات (Fibrates): حصوات المرارة. راتنجات منحيات حمض الصفراء: سوء امتصاص الفيتامينات الذائبة في الدهون (A, D, E, K). مضادات التجلط والصفائح (Anticoagulants & Antiplatelets): تيكلوبيدين (Ticlopidine): تفاعلات دم خطيرة مثل ندرة المحببات (Agranulocytosis) وفقر الدم اللاتنسجي. الوارفارين (Warfarin): نخر جلدي و "متلازمة الإصبع الأرجواني". أدوية الجهاز الهضمي والتنفسي: سيميتيدين (Cimetidine): تثدي الرجال وثر اللبن (Galactorrhea). الكورتيكوستيرويدات المستنشقة: كانديدا الفم (Oropharyngeal candidiasis) وبحة الصوت. ثانياً: المتلازمات (Syndromes) المذكورة في المصادر وأسبابها متلازمة ستيفنز جونسون (Stevens-Johnson Syndrome): الأسباب: تفاعل جلدي نادر وخطير ناتج عن استخدام الكاربامازيبين أو اللاموتريجين (خاصة عند معايرة الجرعة بسرعة أو استخدامه مع الفالبروات). متلازمة تشبه الذئبة (Lupus-like Syndrome): الأسباب: تنتج عن استخدام جرعات عالية من دواء الهيدرالازين (Hydralazine)، وهي حالة عكسية تزول بوقف الدواء. متلازمة الإصبع الأرجواني (Purple Toe Syndrome): الأسباب: تنتج عن دواء الوارفارين (Warfarin)؛ وتحدث بسبب انسداد كوليسترولي ناتج عن لويحات تصلب الشرايين. ظاهرة سرقة الدم التاجي (Coronary Steal Phenomenon): الأسباب: تنتج عن استخدام الدايبيريدامول (Dipyridamole) في مرضى الذبحة الصدرية غير المستقرة، حيث يقوم بتوسيع الأوعية السليمة مما يقلل تدفق الدم إلى المناطق المصابة بالإقفار. متلازمة لينوكس-غاستو (Lennox-Gastaut Syndrome): الأسباب: لم تذكر المصادر سببها الطبي (فهي نوع من الصرع) ولكن ذكرت أن دواء اللاموتريجين فعال في علاجها. متلازمة تململ الساقين (Restless Legs Syndrome): الأسباب: ذكرت المصادر أن أدوية الجابابنتين والبريجابالين تستخدم لعلاجها.

الاسألة من 100-125 هي زبدة المادة الاسألة من 1-100 هي محاكاة لنمط المد الاعتماد على الله فقط يعني مو احد يعتمد عليهم

1. A | 2. C | 3. C | 4. B | 5. C | 6. B | 7. B | 8. C Section 2 (Antidepressants) 9. B | 10. C | 11. C | 12. B | 13. C | 14. B | 15. B | 16. C Section 3 (Antiepileptics) 17. C | 18. C | 19. B | 20. B | 21. B | 22. B | 23. B | 24. E (Corrected: SJS is mostly Carbamazepine/Lamotrigine, but in list E is Diazepam. Wait, let's re-verify Q24 options from original text. Option E was Diazepam, C was Carbamazepine. Answer is C Carbamazepine). Section 4 (Parkinson's) 25. B | 26. C | 27. B | 28. B | 29. B | 30. B | 31. B | 32. B Section 5 (Diuretics) 33. B | 34. C | 35. C | 36. C | 37. B | 38. B | 39. A | 40. B Section 6 (Antihypertensives) 41. C | 42. C | 43. B | 44. B | 45. C | 46. B | 47. B | 48. B Section 7 (Antianginal) 49. B | 50. B | 51. B | 52. C | 53. C | 54. C | 55. B | 56. C Section 8 (Heart Failure) 57. B | 58. B | 59. B | 60. B | 61. C | 62. B | 63. C | 64. C Section 9 (Lipids) 65. B | 66. B | 67. B | 68. C | 69. B | 70. B | 71. B | 72. C Section 10 (Anti-platelets) 73. B | 74. B | 75. C | 76. C | 77. B | 78. B | 79. C | 80. B Section 11 (Anticoagulants) 81. C | 82. B | 83. B | 84. B | 85. B | 86. C | 87. C | 88. C Section 12 (GI) 89. C | 90. C | 91. B | 92. B | 93. B | 94. A | 95. B | 96. C Section 13 (Respiratory) 97. B | 98. C | 99. C | 100. B Section 14 (New Additions) 101. B | 102. A | 103. B | 104. B | 105. B 106. B | 107. C | 108. C | 109. A | 110. C 111. B | 112. B | 113. B | 114. C | 115. B 116. A | 117. B | 118. C | 119. B | 120. B 121. A | 122. C | 123. B | 124. B | 125. B

Clonidine withdrawal can result in a life-threatening condition known as: A. Rebound Hypertension B. Severe Hypotension C. Respiratory Depression D. Hepatic Failure E. Anaphylaxis 122. Which lipid-lowering agent causes cutaneous flushing which can be reduced by taking aspirin beforehand? A. Atorvastatin B. Ezetimibe C. Niacin (Nicotinic Acid) D. Cholestyramine E. Gemfibrozil 123. Digoxin toxicity is worsened by which electrolyte disturbance? A. Hyperkalemia B. Hypokalemia C. Hypermagnesemia D. Hyponatremia E. Hypercalcemia 124. Beta-blockers should be used with caution in diabetic patients taking insulin because they can: A. Cause severe hyperglycemia B. Mask the signs of hypoglycemia (like tachycardia/tremors) C. Increase insulin resistance significantly D. Cause ketoacidosis E. Increase appetite 125. Which drug is a specific inhibitor of the "Funny Current" (If) in the SA node, used in heart failure when beta-blockers are not tolerated? A. Digoxin B. Ivabradine C. Verapamil D. Amiodarone E. Lidocaine

Section 14: Comprehensive & Clinical Additions (Important) 101. Which antiepileptic drug is classic for causing gingival hyperplasia and hirsutism? A. Valproic acid B. Phenytoin C. Ethosuximide D. Gabapentin E. Topiramate 102. The use of organic nitrates (e.g., Nitroglycerin) is strictly contraindicated with phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitors (e.g., Sildenafil) because the combination causes: A. Severe hypotension B. Hypertensive crisis C. Respiratory depression D. Serotonin syndrome E. Acute renal failure 103. Which drug acts as a leukotriene receptor antagonist and is used for the maintenance treatment of asthma? A. Theophylline B. Montelukast C. Ipratropium D. Cromolyn E. Salmeterol 104. Which of the following is the specific antidote used to reverse the anticoagulant effect of Warfarin? A. Protamine sulfate B. Vitamin K (Phytonadione) C. Idarucizumab D. Aminocaproic acid E. Flumazenil 105. Concurrent use of ACE inhibitors and Potassium-sparing diuretics (e.g., Spironolactone) increases the risk of: A. Hypokalemia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hyponatremia D. Hypercalcemia E. Hypoglycemia 106. Which of the following is a known teratogenic effect associated with Valproic Acid if taken during pregnancy? A. Cleft palate B. Spina bifida (Neural tube defects) C. Grey baby syndrome D. Phocomelia E. Renal agenesis 107. Omeprazole (a PPI) may reduce the antiplatelet efficacy of Clopidogrel by inhibiting which CYP enzyme? A. CYP3A4 B. CYP1A2 C. CYP2C19 D. CYP2D6 E. CYP2E1 108. Which drug is considered the safest choice for treating hypertension in pregnant women? A. Lisinopril B. Losartan C. Methyldopa D. Furosemide E. Atenolol 109. To maximize absorption and efficacy, patients should be instructed to take Proton Pump Inhibitors (PPIs): A. 30–60 minutes before a meal B. Immediately after a meal C. With a high-fat meal D. Only at bedtime E. Together with antacids 110. Which agent is a bronchodilator that has a narrow therapeutic window and requires monitoring of serum levels to prevent toxicity (seizures/arrhythmias)? A. Salbutamol B. Ipratropium C. Theophylline D. Fluticasone E. Montelukast 111. Which diuretic is specifically indicated to prevent mountain sickness (High altitude sickness)? A. Furosemide B. Acetazolamide C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Spironolactone E. Mannitol 112. The co-administration of a Statin (e.g., Simvastatin) with a Fibrate (e.g., Gemfibrozil) significantly increases the risk of: A. Hepatotoxicity B. Rhabdomyolysis C. Renal failure D. Gastric bleeding E. Thrombosis 113. N-acetylcysteine is the specific antidote for toxicity caused by: A. Aspirin B. Acetaminophen (Paracetamol) C. Morphine D. Warfarin E. Heparin 114. Which class of antihypertensive drugs is preferred in diabetic patients because they protect against diabetic nephropathy? A. Beta-blockers B. Loop diuretics C. ACE inhibitors / ARBs D. Calcium channel blockers E. Alpha-blockers 115. Aliskiren is an antihypertensive drug that works by directly inhibiting: A. Angiotensin Converting Enzyme (ACE) B. Renin C. Aldosterone D. Angiotensin II receptors E. Sodium channels 116. Which of the following drugs causes "Grey Baby Syndrome" in neonates due to immature liver metabolism? A. Chloramphenicol (Note: General Pharma concept often tested) B. Tetracycline C. Penicillin D. Gentamicin E. Erythromycin 117. Spironolactone has been shown to improve survival (reduce mortality) in patients with: A. Hypertension alone B. Severe Heart Failure (NYHA Class III-IV) C. Acute Renal Failure D. Asthma E. Peptic Ulcer Disease 118. Which anticoagulant is preferred for the treatment of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in pregnant women? A. Warfarin B. Dabigatran C. Low Molecular Weight Heparin (Enoxaparin) D. Rivaroxaban E. Apixaban 119. Cough and angioedema associated with ACE inhibitors are due to the accumulation of: A. Angiotensin I B. Bradykinin C. Nitric Oxide D. Renin E. Aldosterone 120. Which drug is a synthetic prostaglandin E1 analog used to prevent NSAID-induced gastric ulcers? A. Omeprazole B. Misoprostol C. Sucralfate D. Ranitidine E. Bismuth subsalicylate 121.

Quick relief of acute bronchoconstriction C. Preventing oropharyngeal candidiasis D. Suppressing the cough reflex only E. Reducing cholesterol 98. Which of the following is a potential adverse effect of inhaled corticosteroids (ICS)? A. Tachycardia B. Hypokalemia C. Oropharyngeal candidiasis D. Hypertrichosis E. Rhabdomyolysis 99. Which drug is a prophylactic anti-inflammatory agent that inhibits mast cell degranulation? A. Theophylline B. Salmeterol C. Cromolyn D. Ipratropium E. Formoterol 100. Omalizumab is a monoclonal antibody that selectively binds to: A. Dopamine B. Immunoglobulin E (IgE) C. Histamine receptors D. Sodium channels E. Beta-2 receptors

ADP receptors B. COX-1 enzyme C. GP IIb/IIIa receptors D. Phosphodiesterase E. Thrombin 74. Which of the following antiplatelet drugs is a prodrug that requires activation by CYP2C19? A. Aspirin B. Clopidogrel C. Ticagrelor D. Abciximab E. Dipyridamole 75. The maximum inhibitory effect of aspirin on platelets lasts for: A. 2 hours B. 24 hours C. 7 to 10 days D. 30 days E. The duration of the dose only 76. Which drug is a chimeric monoclonal antibody that inhibits the GP IIb/IIIa receptor? A. Prasugrel B. Ticagrelor C. Abciximab D. Cilostazol E. Ticlopidine 77. If taken together, which drug can obstruct aspirin's access to COX-1 and antagonize its antiplatelet effect? A. Acetaminophen B. Ibuprofen C. Celecoxib D. Warfarin E. Clopidogrel 78. Dipyridamole is often used in combination with aspirin for: A. Acute MI treatment B. Stroke prevention C. Lowering triglycerides D. Treating asthma E. Hypertension 79. Cilostazol promotes vasodilation and prevents platelet aggregation by inhibiting: A. COX-2 B. Vitamin K C. Phosphodiesterase type III D. Factor Xa E. Antithrombin III 80. Which antiplatelet drug is associated with severe hematologic reactions like agranulocytosis? A. Clopidogrel B. Ticlopidine C. Ticagrelor D. Aspirin E. Eptifibatide Section 11: Anticoagulants 81. Heparin exerts its anticoagulant effect by binding to and activating: A. Vitamin K B. Prothrombin C. Antithrombin III D. Factor VII E. Fibrinogen 82. The standard test used to monitor the extent of anticoagulation with heparin is: A. INR B. aPTT C. Bleeding time D. Platelet count E. LDL level 83. Excessive bleeding caused by heparin can be managed using: A. Vitamin K B. Protamine sulfate C. Aspirin D. Aminoglycosides E. Calcium gluconate 84. Warfarin acts by inhibiting which enzyme? A. COX-1 B. Vitamin K epoxide reductase C. Thrombin D. HMG CoA reductase E. Phosphodiesterase 85. The standard by which the anticoagulant activity of warfarin is monitored is: A. aPTT B. INR C. Creatinine clearance D. Liver enzyme levels E. Vitamin K levels 86. Which of the following is an oral inhibitor of Factor Xa that does not require laboratory monitoring? A. Heparin B. Warfarin C. Rivaroxaban D. Argatroban E. Enoxaparin 87. Warfarin is strictly contraindicated in: A. Elderly patients B. Patients with atrial fibrillation C. Pregnancy D. Patients with mechanical valves E. Chronic alcoholics 88. Which drug is used for patients with Heparin-induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT)? A. Warfarin B. Rivaroxaban C. Argatroban D. Enoxaparin E. Aspirin Section 12: Gastrointestinal Disorders 89. Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) suppress gastric acid secretion by binding to the: A. H2 receptor B. Muscarinic receptor C. H+/K+ -ATPase enzyme system D. Gastrin receptor E. Prostaglandin receptor 90. Which H2-receptor antagonist is known to have endocrine effects like gynecomastia? A. Ranitidine B. Famotidine C. Cimetidine D. Nizatidine E. Omeprazole 91. Misoprostol is specifically approved for the prevention of: A. H. pylori infection B. NSAID-induced gastric ulcers C. Motion sickness D. Chronic constipation E. GERD 92. The antiemetic drug Ondansetron belongs to which class? A. Dopamine blockers B. 5-HT3 receptor blockers C. Benzodiazepines D. Corticosteroids E. Substance P antagonists 93. Which of the following is an adverse effect of Aluminum hydroxide antacids? A. Diarrhea B. Constipation C. Hypertension D. Dry cough E. Weight gain 94. Metoclopramide's use is limited by side effects such as: A. Extrapyramidal symptoms B. Gingival hyperplasia C. Rhabdomyolysis D. Dry mouth E. Ototoxicity 95. Triple therapy for H. pylori eradication usually includes a PPI plus: A. Aspirin and Heparin B. Amoxicillin and Metronidazole C. Warfarin and Niacin D. Insulin and Glucagon E. Codeine and Morphine 96. Which agent creates a physical barrier to protect an ulcer from acid and pepsin? A. Magnesium hydroxide B. Misoprostol C. Sucralfate D. Cimetidine E. Pantoprazole Section 13: Respiratory Disorders 97. Short-acting β2 agonists (SABAs) like Salbutamol are used for: A. Long-term control of inflammation B.

51. Which drug is the drug of choice for prompt relief of an acute angina attack precipitated by exercise? A. Oral Atenolol B. Sublingual Nitroglycerin C. Transdermal Nitroglycerin patch D. Amlodipine E. Ranolazine 52. Beta-blockers are contraindicated in which type of angina? A. Stable angina B. Unstable angina C. Vasospastic (Prinzmetal) angina D. Effort-induced angina E. Typical angina 53. The most common adverse effect of organic nitrates is: A. Constipation B. Bradycardia C. Headache D. Dry cough E. Hypertension 54. Ranolazine is indicated for chronic angina and works by inhibiting: A. Beta receptors B. HMG CoA reductase C. Late phase of the sodium current D. L-type calcium channels E. ACE enzymes 55. To prevent nitrate tolerance, patients should be provided with a: A. Double dose at night B. Nitrate-free interval (10-12 hours) C. High-fat meal D. Constant infusion E. Potassium supplement 56. Verapamil is contraindicated in patients with: A. Hypertension B. Migraine C. AV conduction abnormalities D. Stable angina E. Supraventricular tachyarrhythmia Section 8: Treatment of Heart Failure 57. Digoxin enhances cardiac contractility by inhibiting which enzyme? A. Phosphodiesterase B. Na+/K+ -ATPase C. Carbonic anhydrase D. ACE E. HMG CoA reductase 58. Which of the following is a positive inotropic agent given intravenously for short-term acute heart failure? A. Lisinopril B. Dobutamine C. Spironolactone D. Carvedilol E. Valsartan 59. Visual disturbances such as "yellowish vision" (xanthopsia) are an indicator of toxicity for: A. Metoprolol B. Digoxin C. Enalapril D. Furosemide E. Milrinone 60. Which electrolyte abnormality predisposes a patient to digoxin toxicity? A. Hyperkalemia B. Hypokalemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hyponatremia E. Hypermagnesemia 61. In heart failure, ACE inhibitors are beneficial because they decrease: A. Cardiac contractility B. Heart rate directly C. Both preload and afterload D. Potassium levels E. Bradykinin levels 62. Milrinone is a phosphodiesterase inhibitor that increases cardiac contractility by increasing intracellular: A. Sodium B. cAMP C. cGMP D. Potassium E. Chloride 63. Beta-blockers used in heart failure, such as Carvedilol, help by: A. Increasing heart rate B. Promoting remodeling and hypertrophy C. Preventing the deleterious effects of norepinephrine D. Increasing renin release E. Increasing fluid retention 64. The antidote used for severe digoxin toxicity is: A. Protamine sulfate B. Vitamin K C. Digoxin immune Fab D. Naloxone E. Atropine Section 9: Antihyperlipidemic Drugs 65. Statins (HMG CoA reductase inhibitors) work by inhibiting the rate-limiting step in: A. Triglyceride synthesis B. Cholesterol synthesis C. Bile acid excretion D. Fatty acid absorption E. VLDL breakdown 66. Which drug is the most effective agent for increasing HDL-C levels? A. Atorvastatin B. Niacin C. Gemfibrozil D. Ezetimibe E. Cholestyramine 67. A serious side effect of statins that involves the disintegration of skeletal muscle is: A. Myalgia B. Rhabdomyolysis C. Osteoporosis D. Hepatotoxicity E. Gingival hyperplasia 68. Ezetimibe reduces plasma cholesterol by: A. Inhibiting HMG CoA reductase B. Binding bile acids in the intestine C. Selectively inhibiting cholesterol absorption in the small intestine D. Activating lipoprotein lipase E. Increasing VLDL synthesis 69. Fibrates like Fenofibrate and Gemfibrozil are primarily used to lower serum: A. LDL cholesterol B. Triglycerides C. HDL cholesterol D. Uric acid E. Blood glucose 70. Bile acid sequestrants can interfere with the absorption of which vitamins? A. Vitamin C and B B. Fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, K) C. Only Vitamin B12 D. All water-soluble vitamins E. None of the above 71. The most common adverse effect of Niacin is: A. Dry cough B. Cutaneous flushing and warmth C. Constipation D. Rhabdomyolysis E. Weight gain 72. Statins are strictly contraindicated during: A. Exercise B. Hypertension C. Pregnancy and lactation D. High-protein diets E. Old age Section 10: Anti-platelets 73. Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation by irreversibly inhibiting: A.

Which class of drugs is a first-line treatment for hypertension but commonly causes a dry cough? A. Beta-blockers B. Calcium channel blockers C. ACE inhibitors D. Alpha-blockers E. Thiazides 42. The mechanism of action of Clonidine involves acting as an: A. Alpha-1 antagonist B. Beta-1 blocker C. Alpha-2 agonist D. Angiotensin receptor blocker E. Renin inhibitor 43. Which drug is a direct-acting vasodilator that can cause hypertrichosis (excessive hair growth)? A. Hydralazine B. Minoxidil C. Prazosin D. Losartan E. Enalapril 44. Calcium channel blockers like Amlodipine are particularly beneficial in hypertension because they have a greater affinity for: A. Calcium channels in the heart B. Vascular calcium channels C. Potassium channels in the kidney D. Sodium channels in the brain E. Chloride channels in the gut 45. Which of the following is a selective beta-1 blocker that also increases nitric oxide production? A. Propranolol B. Atenolol C. Nebivolol D. Carvedilol E. Labetalol 46. What is the primary action of Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers (ARBs)? A. Inhibiting the conversion of Angiotensin I B. Blocking AT1 receptors C. Inhibiting Renin release D. Increasing Bradykinin levels E. Stimulating Aldosterone secretion 47. Hydralazine is an accepted medication for controlling blood pressure in: A. Patients with asthma B. Pregnancy-induced hypertension C. Patients with gout D. Hypertensive emergencies only E. Diabetic nephropathy 48. Abrupt withdrawal of Beta-blockers can lead to: A. Severe hypotension B. Rebound hypertension and myocardial infarction C. Hypoglycemia awareness D. Excessive weight loss E. Immediate sedation Section 7: Antianginal Drugs 49. Classic angina is primarily caused by: A. Coronary artery spasm B. Atherosclerosis causing fixed obstruction C. Sudden drop in blood pressure D. Increased venous return E. Excessive rest 50. Organic nitrates provide relief of angina symptoms by converting to nitric oxide and increasing levels of: A. cAMP B. cGMP C. Calcium D. Sodium E. ATP

GABA-A receptors B. The α2-δ site of voltage-gated calcium channels C. NMDA receptors D. Sodium channels E. Potassium channels 22. Which of the following is a first-line broad-spectrum drug used for many seizure types and as a mood stabilizer? A. Ethosuximide B. Valproate C. Primidone D. Phenytoin E. Tiagabine 23. Which drug is specifically used for the treatment of trigeminal neuralgia? A. Diazepam B. Carbamazepine C. Phenobarbital D. Gabapentin E. Levetiracetam 24. A serious, life-threatening rash (Stevens-Johnson syndrome) is a rare but notable adverse effect of: A. Gabapentin B. Valproate C. Carbamazepine D. Levetiracetam E. Diazepam Section 4: Anti-Parkinson's Drugs 25. Levodopa is co-administered with Carbidopa because Carbidopa: A. Crosses the blood-brain barrier to increase dopamine B. Inhibits peripheral dopamine decarboxylase C. Stimulates dopamine receptors directly D. Increases the breakdown of dopamine in the CNS E. Blocks acetylcholine receptors 26. Which vitamin increases the peripheral breakdown of levodopa, diminishing its effectiveness? A. Vitamin C B. Vitamin B12 C. Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine) D. Vitamin D E. Vitamin A 27. Selegiline (Deprenyl) acts as an antiparkinsonian agent by: A. Blocking muscarinic receptors B. Selectively inhibiting MAO type B C. Acting as a dopamine precursor D. Inhibiting COMT E. Stimulating NMDA receptors 28. Which of the following is an antiviral drug found to have antiparkinsonian action by inhibiting NMDA receptors? A. Bromocriptine B. Amantadine C. Entacapone D. Benztropine E. Rotigotine 29. The primary goal of using Antimuscarinic agents in Parkinson's disease is to: A. Increase dopamine levels B. Correct the imbalance between dopamine and acetylcholine C. Inhibit COMT D. Block dopamine receptors E. Prevent dopamine reuptake 30. Which of the following COMT inhibitors is associated with serious fulminating hepatic necrosis? A. Entacapone B. Tolcapone C. Selegiline D. Rasagiline E. Pramipexole 31. Apomorphine is primarily used in advanced Parkinson's disease for: A. Long-term maintenance therapy B. Acute management of the "off" phenomenon C. Prevention of tremors in early stages D. Replacement of Levodopa E. Reducing blood pressure 32. A common side effect of Levodopa due to the catecholamine oxidation is: A. Yellowing of the skin B. Brownish color of saliva and urine C. Bright red tears D. Pale stool E. Blue-tinged vision Section 5: Diuretics 33. Which class of diuretics is often referred to as "low ceiling" because increasing the dose does not promote further response? A. Loop diuretics B. Thiazide diuretics C. Osmotic diuretics D. Potassium-sparing diuretics E. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors 34. Thiazide diuretics promote diuresis by inhibiting the sodium/chloride cotransporter in the: A. Proximal convoluted tubule B. Ascending loop of Henle C. Distal convoluted tubule D. Collecting duct E. Descending loop of Henle 35. Which of the following is a high-efficacy diuretic that acts on the ascending limb of the loop of Henle? A. Hydrochlorothiazide B. Spironolactone C. Furosemide D. Acetazolamide E. Amiloride 36. Ototoxicity (hearing loss) is a unique potential adverse effect of which diuretic class? A. Thiazides B. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors C. Loop diuretics D. Osmotic diuretics E. Aldosterone antagonists 37. Which diuretic is an aldosterone antagonist that can cause gynecomastia in male patients? A. Eplerenone B. Spironolactone C. Triamterene D. Furosemide E. Chlorthalidone 38. Acetazolamide is primarily used in the treatment of: A. Pulmonary edema B. Glaucoma C. Hypertension D. Hyperkalemia E. Rhabdomyolysis 39. Which of the following is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce increased intracranial pressure? A. Mannitol B. Acetazolamide C. Bumetanide D. Amiloride E. Metolazone 40. Unlike thiazides, loop diuretics result in: A. Decreased urinary calcium excretion B. Increased urinary calcium excretion C. Hyperglycemia D. Metabolic acidosis E. Decreased potassium loss Section 6: Antihypertensive Drugs 41.

FINAL PHARMACOLOGY EXAMINATION Course: Pharmacology II (Lec 7 – 19) Time Allotted: 120 Minutes Total Questions: 125 Instructions: • Select the single best answer for each question. • Each question has five options (A, B, C, D, E). Section 1: Narcotic Analgesics 1. Which of the following opioid receptors is primarily responsible for the analgesic properties of opioids? A. Mu (μ) B. Kappa (κ) C. Delta (δ) D. Sigma (σ) E. Alpha (α) 2. The characteristic "pinpoint pupil" (miosis) observed in morphine users is caused by the stimulation of: A. Beta receptors B. Nicotinic receptors C. Mu and Kappa receptors D. Dopamine receptors E. Serotonin receptors 3. What is the most common cause of death in acute opioid overdose? A. Cardiac arrhythmia B. Renal failure C. Respiratory depression D. Hepatic necrosis E. Hypotension 4. Morphine is usually contraindicated in individuals with head trauma because it can increase: A. Blood sugar B. Cerebrospinal fluid pressure C. Heart rate D. Intraocular pressure E. Body temperature 5. Which synthetic opioid is estimated to have 100-fold the analgesic potency of morphine? A. Codeine B. Tramadol C. Fentanyl D. Methadone E. Meperidine 6. Which of the following is a centrally acting analgesic that weakly inhibits the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin? A. Morphine B. Tramadol C. Naloxone D. Fentanyl E. Codeine 7. Morphine causes relief of diarrhea primarily by: A. Increasing intestinal secretions B. Decreasing the motility of intestinal smooth muscle C. Stimulating the vomiting center D. Blocking histamine release E. Inhibiting the Mu receptor 8. Which enzyme system is responsible for converting codeine into its active form, morphine? A. CYP3A4 B. CYP2C19 C. CYP2D6 D. MAO-B E. Acetylcholinesterase Section 2: Antidepressant Drugs 9. The "Biogenic Amine Theory" proposes that depression is due to a deficiency of: A. Acetylcholine B. Norepinephrine and Serotonin C. Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) D. Glutamate E. Dopamine only 10. Which of the following is a Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor (SSRI)? A. Amitriptyline B. Venlafaxine C. Fluoxetine D. Phenelzine E. Bupropion 11. Which antidepressant is also useful for decreasing cravings and withdrawal symptoms of nicotine in patients trying to quit smoking? A. Lithium B. Sertraline C. Bupropion D. Imipramine E. Duloxetine 12. The use of Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOIs) with tyramine-containing foods can result in: A. Excessive sedation B. Hypertensive crisis C. Severe hypoglycemia D. Muscle paralysis E. Respiratory failure 13. Which tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) is specifically used in the treatment of bed-wetting in children? A. Amitriptyline B. Doxepin C. Imipramine D. Nortriptyline E. Desipramine 14. Which of the following is a common adverse effect associated with SSRIs? A. Weight gain B. Sexual dysfunction C. Orthostatic hypotension D. Dry mouth E. Blurred vision 15. Lithium salts are primarily used for the management of: A. Major depression B. Bipolar disorder (Mania) C. Generalized anxiety D. Insomnia E. Schizophrenia 16. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) cause sedation primarily by blocking which receptor? A. Alpha-adrenergic B. Muscarinic C. Histamine H1 D. Dopamine D2 E. Serotonin 5-HT2 Section 3: Antiepileptic Drugs 17. Which drug is considered the prototype of antiepileptic drugs and acts by blocking voltage-gated sodium channels? A. Valproic acid B. Gabapentin C. Carbamazepine D. Levetiracetam E. Diazepam 18. Which of the following is the first-line intravenous treatment for status epilepticus? A. Phenobarbital B. Ethosuximide C. Diazepam D. Carbamazepine E. Gabapentin 19. What is the primary mechanism of action for Levetiracetam? A. Blocking T-type calcium channels B. Binding to synaptic vesicle protein 2A (SV2A) C. Enhancing GABA reuptake D. Inhibiting GABA transaminase E. Blocking sodium channels 20. Which antiepileptic drug is known to cause auto-induction of its own metabolism? A. Phenytoin B. Carbamazepine C. Valproate D. Gabapentin E. Lamotrigine 21. Gabapentin and Pregabalin exert their effects by binding to: A.

تريدون فورما mimic لنمط المد بس لملازم الفاينل؟

اساسيات واغلب معلومات وشرح ملزمة Git disorders