B.Sc. NURSING 💊💉

Babcock forceps Used to grasp delicate tissue in lasre procedures. They frequently used with intestinal and laparotomy procedure.

Adson thumb forceps For holding and manipulating delicate tissues.

*✨ IMPORTANT HEALTH PROGRAMS & THEIR INITIATIVES ✨* *Golden Points* • ✅ MONICA Project – Monitoring trends in cardiovascular diseases • ✅ MusQan Initiative – Improving child healthcare services • ✅ Kilkari – Free mobile voice messages for pregnant women & new mothers • ✅ RBSK (Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram) – Child health screening & early intervention • ✅ JSSK (Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram) – Free delivery & neonatal care services • ✅ Mera Aspataal (My Hospital) – Patient feedback system for hospitals • ✅ Indradhanush Mission – Increasing immunization coverage for children • ✅ POSHAN Abhiyaan – National nutrition mission to tackle malnutrition • ✅ Kayakalp – Cleanliness & hygiene promotion in public hospitals • ✅ Anemia Mukt Bharat – Initiative to reduce anemia in women & children • ✅ PMJAY (Ayushman Bharat) – Free health insurance for economically weaker sections • ✅ RNTCP (Revised National TB Control Program) – TB eradication initiative • ✅ NACP (National AIDS Control Program) – HIV/AIDS prevention and treatment program • ✅ PMMVY (Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana) – Maternity benefit scheme for first-time mothers • ✅ Shishu Suraksha Program – Neonatal care & newborn survival strategies • ✅ Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) – Safe motherhood & institutional deliveries • ✅ LaQshya Program – Enhancing labor room & maternity care quality • ✅ Sapna (NLEP Mascot) – Symbol of leprosy eradication awareness • ✅ SUMAN Scheme – Ensuring dignified maternal healthcare • ✅ Meena Campaign – UNICEF initiative for girl child empowerment • ✅ ASHA Workers – Community-based healthcare volunteers • ✅ Ujala Scheme – LED distribution for energy conservation • ✅ PM Ujjwala Yojana – Subsidized LPG connections for rural households • ✅ Ujjawala Program – Anti-human trafficking & child protection initiative • ✅ Nischay Kit – Free pregnancy detection test kits • ✅ Nikshay Portal – National TB tracking & treatment platform • ✅ Nikushth Program – Digital health initiative for leprosy management

#### Quality Management 46. What ensures the reliability of HIV test kits? a) Batch testing b) User feedback c) Annual surveys d) Random sampling Answer: a) Batch testing Reference: Section 8.2, Page 114 47. What is the role of EQAS in HCTS? a) External Quality Assessment Scheme b) Emergency Quality Assurance System c) Employee Qualification Assessment d) Equipment Quality Audit Service Answer: a) External Quality Assessment Scheme Reference: Section 8.3, Page 115 48. Who validates HIV testing kits in India? a) WHO b) NACO c) ICMR d) CDC Answer: b) NACO Reference: Section 8.2, Page 114 49. What is a key quality indicator for HCTS facilities? a) Number of staff trained b) Client satisfaction rate c) Turnaround time for results d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above Reference: Section 8.1, Page 113 50. What should be done if a test kit fails quality checks? a) Use it anyway b) Discard and report to NACO c) Sell it at a discount d) Store it for future use Answer: b) Discard and report to NACO Reference: Section 8.2, Page 114 --- ### Notes - These 50 MCQs are drawn from critical sections of the guidelines, ensuring coverage of foundational concepts, practical applications, and policy details. - Questions are structured to be concise yet test-specific knowledge (e.g., timelines, regimens, target groups). - If you’d like a printable version, detailed explanations for answers, or adjustments (e.g., fewer/more questions), let me know!

30. What is NOT a biomedical prevention method in the guidelines? a) PrEP b) PEP c) Behavioral counseling d) U=U Answer: c) Behavioral counseling Reference: Section 3.1, Page 37 #### Monitoring and Evaluation 31. Which indicator tracks HIV self-testing uptake? a) Number of ART centers opened b) Number of HIVST kits distributed c) Number of condoms distributed d) Number of counseling sessions held Answer: b) Number of HIVST kits distributed Reference: Annexure 16, Page 171 32. What is the primary data source for HCTS monitoring? a) HMIS b) SOCH c) IDSP d) NHM Answer: b) SOCH Reference: Section 10.3, Page 129 33. How often should HCTS facilities report data? a) Weekly b) Monthly c) Quarterly d) Annually Answer: b) Monthly Reference: Section 10.3, Page 129 34. What does the 95-95-95 target measure? a) Testing, treatment, and viral suppression b) Condom use, PrEP, and PEP uptake c) Counseling, testing, and education d) Stigma reduction, awareness, and funding Answer: a) Testing, treatment, and viral suppression Reference: Section 1.2, Page 4 35. Which tool assesses HCTS service quality? a) Quality Management System (QMS) b) Social Network Analysis c) Risk Assessment Survey d) Patient Satisfaction Index Answer: a) Quality Management System (QMS) Reference: Section 8.1, Page 113 #### Ethical and Legal Considerations 36. What is a core principle of HIV testing? a) Mandatory testing for all b) Informed consent c) Public disclosure of results d) Testing without counseling Answer: b) Informed consent Reference: Section 7.1, Page 107 37. What must be ensured for HIV test results? a) Shared with employers b) Confidentiality c) Posted online d) Reported to police Answer: b) Confidentiality Reference: Section 7.1, Page 107 38. Which group requires special consent considerations? a) Adults over 60 b) Minors under 18 c) Healthcare workers d) Pregnant women Answer: b) Minors under 18 Reference: Section 7.2, Page 108 39. What is prohibited under the HIV/AIDS Act 2017? a) Voluntary testing b) Discrimination based on HIV status c) Free treatment provision d) Counseling services Answer: b) Discrimination based on HIV status Reference: Section 7.3, Page 109 40. Who can access a minor’s HIV test results? a) Anyone requesting them b) Parents or legal guardians c) School authorities d) Public health officials only Answer: b) Parents or legal guardians Reference: Section 7.2, Page 108 #### Integration and Special Scenarios 41. Which disease is HCTS integrated with for screening? a) Diabetes b) Tuberculosis c) Hypertension d) Malaria Answer: b) Tuberculosis Reference: Section 6.1, Page 97 42. What strategy unifies health services under NACP-V? a) Sampoorna Suraksha b) PMTCT c) Index Testing d) Mobile HCTS Answer: a) Sampoorna Suraksha Reference: Section 6.1, Page 97 43. What additional service is offered to sexual assault survivors? a) Nutritional support b) Psychological counseling c) Job placement d) Travel assistance Answer: b) Psychological counseling Reference: Section 6.7, Page 102 44. Which population is targeted by Mobile HCTS vans? a) Urban youth b) Rural and hard-to-reach areas c) Hospital staff d) School children Answer: b) Rural and hard-to-reach areas Reference: Section 2.4, Page 25 45. What is tested alongside HIV in pregnant women? a) Syphilis b) Cholera c) Dengue d) Typhoid Answer: a) Syphilis Reference: Section 6.4, Page 100

15. What follow-up test is recommended 6 months after PEP completion? a) Kidney function test b) HIV test c) Liver function test d) Blood pressure check Answer: b) HIV test Reference: Section 5.6, Table 5.6.1, Page 74 #### HIV Self-Testing (HIVST) 16. What type of sample is commonly used for HIV self-testing kits? a) Urine b) Oral fluid c) Stool d) Sweat Answer: b) Oral fluid Reference: Section 2.6, Page 31 17. What must follow a reactive HIV self-test result? a) Immediate ART initiation b) Confirmatory testing at an ICTC c) Repeat self-test after 1 month d) No further action required Answer: b) Confirmatory testing at an ICTC Reference: Section 2.6, Page 31 18. Which group is a key focus for HIVST distribution? a) School teachers b) People who inject drugs (PWID) c) Office workers d) Retired individuals Answer: b) People who inject drugs (PWID) Reference: Section 2.6, Page 31 19. What support is provided with HIVST kits? a) Free ART medication b) Helpline numbers c) Monthly counseling sessions d) Home delivery of results Answer: b) Helpline numbers Reference: Section 2.6, Page 32 20. What is a major advantage of HIV self-testing? a) Eliminates need for confirmatory tests b) Reduces stigma and increases privacy c) Provides instant treatment d) Replaces facility-based testing entirely Answer: b) Reduces stigma and increases privacy Reference: Section 2.6, Page 31 #### Diagnostic Approaches 21. How many tests are used in the NACO confirmatory algorithm for HIV in adults? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: c) 3 Reference: Section 5.5, Figure 5.5.1, Page 70 22. What is the window period for antibody detection in HIV testing? a) 1-2 days b) 2-6 weeks c) 6-12 months d) 1-3 years Answer: b) 2-6 weeks Reference: Section 5.5, Page 69 23. What test is used for early infant diagnosis (EID) of HIV? a) Rapid antibody test b) Dried Blood Spot (DBS) PCR c) Oral fluid test d) ELISA screening Answer: b) Dried Blood Spot (DBS) PCR Reference: Section 5.7, Page 75 24. What does a single reactive test result indicate? a) Confirmed HIV-positive b) Needs further testing c) HIV-negative d) Invalid result Answer: b) Needs further testing Reference: Section 5.5, Figure 5.5.1, Page 70 25. Which population requires special testing algorithms? a) Adults over 60 b) Infants under 18 months c) Pregnant women in rural areas d) Healthcare workers Answer: b) Infants under 18 months Reference: Section 5.7, Page 75 #### Prevention Strategies 26. What does U=U stand for in HIV prevention? a) Undetectable = Untransmittable b) Universal = Untreatable c) Urgent = Unavoidable d) Undiagnosed = Unseen Answer: a) Undetectable = Untransmittable Reference: Section 3.1, Page 37 27. Which is a key component of combination prevention? a) Condom promotion b) Annual health checkups c) Routine vaccinations d) Dietary supplements Answer: a) Condom promotion Reference: Section 3.1, Page 37 28. What is the goal of harm reduction programs? a) Cure HIV infection b) Reduce transmission among PWID c) Promote abstinence d) Increase hospital admissions Answer: b) Reduce transmission among PWID Reference: Section 3.5, Page 45 29. Which program aims to eliminate vertical transmission of HIV? a) Sampoorna Suraksha b) PMTCT c) Index Testing d) Social Network Strategy Answer: b) PMTCT Reference: Section 3.6, Page 46

### 50 Important MCQs Based on NACO GUIDELINES #### General HCTS Framework 1. What is the overarching goal of NACP-V regarding HIV testing? a) Treat all diagnosed cases immediately b) Achieve the 95-95-95 targets c) Reduce stigma in rural areas d) Distribute free condoms nationwide Answer: b) Achieve the 95-95-95 targets Reference: Section 1.2, Page 4 2. Which ministry oversees the National AIDS Control Organisation (NACO)? a) Ministry of Education b) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare c) Ministry of Home Affairs d) Ministry of Social Justice Answer: b) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare Reference: Cover Page 3. What does HCTS stand for in the guidelines? a) HIV Care and Treatment Services b) HIV Counselling and Testing Services c) Health Control and Testing System d) HIV Community Testing Strategy Answer: b) HIV Counselling and Testing Services Reference: Section 1.1, Page 3 4. Which strategy involves testing contacts of HIV-positive individuals? a) Social Network Strategy b) Index Testing c) Provider-Initiated Testing d) Mobile Testing Answer: b) Index Testing Reference: Section 2.5, Page 27 5. What is the role of ICTCs in HCTS? a) Only provide treatment b) Offer counseling and testing services c) Distribute HIV vaccines d) Conduct research studies Answer: b) Offer counseling and testing services Reference: Section 2.2, Page 19 #### Pre-Exposure Prophylaxis (PrEP) 6. Who is a primary target group for PrEP? a) General population over 50 b) Serodiscordant couples c) Children under 5 d) Healthcare workers only Answer: b) Serodiscordant couples Reference: Section 3.2, Page 38 7. What is the standard PrEP regimen mentioned in the guidelines? a) Tenofovir + Lamivudine b) Tenofovir + Emtricitabine c) Dolutegravir + Lamivudine d) Zidovudine + Tenofovir Answer: b) Tenofovir + Emtricitabine Reference: Section 3.2, Page 38 8. How often should PrEP users be tested for HIV? a) Every month b) Every 3 months c) Every 6 months d) Annually Answer: b) Every 3 months Reference: Section 3.2, Page 38 9. Which test is NOT required before starting PrEP? a) HIV status b) Kidney Function Test (KFT) c) Hepatitis B (HBsAg) d) Electrocardiogram (ECG) Answer: d) Electrocardiogram (ECG) Reference: Section 3.2, Page 38 10. What does PrEP primarily prevent? a) Hepatitis C b) HIV infection c) Tuberculosis d) Syphilis Answer: b) HIV infection Reference: Section 3.2, Page 38 #### Post-Exposure Prophylaxis (PEP) 11. What is the preferred PEP regimen under NACP-V? a) Tenofovir + Lamivudine + Dolutegravir b) Zidovudine + Lamivudine + Efavirenz c) Tenofovir + Emtricitabine + Raltegravir d) Lopinavir + Ritonavir + Tenofovir Answer: a) Tenofovir + Lamivudine + Dolutegravir Reference: Section 3.3, Page 41 12. What is the duration of PEP treatment? a) 7 days b) 14 days c) 28 days d) 60 days Answer: c) 28 days Reference: Section 3.3, Page 40 13. When should PEP ideally be initiated for maximum effectiveness? a) Within 2 hours b) Within 12 hours c) Within 24 hours d) Within 48 hours Answer: a) Within 2 hours Reference: Section 3.3, Page 40 14. Which exposure requires immediate PEP consideration? a) Superficial scratch with no blood b) Needlestick injury from an HIV-positive source c) Contact with intact skin d) Sharing food with an HIV-positive person Answer: b) Needlestick injury from an HIV-positive source Reference: Section 3.3, Figure 3.3.1, Page 42

HYPER SENSITIVITY REACTIONS 👉Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction: ➢ also known as immediate subtype of hypersensitivity reaction. ➢ Immune reactant : Ig E ➢ Examples: A- atopy B- bronchial asthma C- casoni’s test D- drugs induced hyper sensitivity reaction. 👉Type 2 hypersensitivity reaction: Examples: Mnemonics- my blood group is RH positive. ➢ Myasthenia gravis ➢ Blood transfusion reaction ➢ Good pasture syndrome ➢ Grave’s disease ➢ Immune haemolytic anemia ➢ Immune thrombocytopenia ➢ Rheumatic heart disease ➢ Hyper acute transplant rejection ➢ Pernicious anemia ➢ Pemphigus vulgaris. 👉Type 3 hypersensitivity reaction: Examples: Mnemonic-SHARP ➢ Sharp ➢ Henoch – scholein purpura ➢ Arthus reaction ➢ Reactive arthritis, raji’s assay ➢ Polyarthritis nodosa. 👉Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction: Examples: ➢ Rheumatoid arthritis ➢ Mantoux test, lepromin test ➢ Tuberculin test ➢ Multiple sclerosis ➢ Contact dermatitis

Aiims cre (nurse) question base on memory (26 feb 2025) 34 What postpartum care is crucial for a newborn whose mother is HIV-positive? 35 A nurse is preparing a birth plan for an HIV-positive pregnant patient. What factor primarily influences the decision for a cesarean delivery? 36 During labor, what is a key practice for an HIV-positive pregnant patient to reduce the risk of mother-to-child transmission? 37 What breastfeeding advice should be given to an HIV-positive mother postpartum? 38 What is the primary consideration for the mode of delivery in an HIV-positive pregnant patient? 39 In a pregnant patient with HIV, what is a critical consideration for breastfeeding postpartum? 40 What breastfeeding advice is typically given to an HIV-positive mother after delivery? 41 During prenatal care for an HIV-positive patient, what is an essential aspect of fetal monitoring? 42 What is the primary consideration for delivery planning in an HIV-positive pregnant patient with a high viral load? 43 During labor for an HIV-positive pregnant patient, what is a key nursing intervention to reduce the risk of HIV transmission to the newborn? 44 For an HIV-positive pregnant patient, why is the administration of intravenous zidovudine recommended during labor? 45 What breastfeeding advice should a nurse provide to a postpartum patient who is HIV-positive? 46 What is a key nursing intervention during labor for an HIV-positive pregnant patient to minimize the risk of transmitting HIV to the newborn? 47 What breastfeeding advice is typically given to an HIV-positive mother? 48 What breastfeeding recommendation is given to HIV-positive mothers to minimize the risk to their infants? 49 What is the primary reason for prescribing zidovudine to a newborn born to an HIV-positive mother? 50 What is an important consideration in the intrapartum care of an HIV-positive pregnant patient? 51 Why is zidovudine administered to newborns born to HIV-positive mothers? 52 During labor, what is the primary reason for administering intravenous zidovudine to an HIV-positive pregnant patient? 53 During prenatal consultations, what should a nurse emphasize to an HIV-positive pregnant patient about HAART therapy? 54 In caring for a newborn whose mother is HIV-positive, why is zidovudine administered to the baby after birth? 55 In postpartum care, what advice should a nurse give to an HIV-positive mother regarding infant feeding? 56 For an HIV-positive mother, why is breastfeeding generally discouraged? 57 During prenatal care for an HIV-positive patient, why is the continuation of HAART therapy crucial? 58 What is a critical consideration when planning the delivery of a baby for an HIV-positive pregnant patient? 60 In planning the delivery of a baby for an HIV-positive pregnant patient, what factor primarily influences the decision for a cesarean section? 61 In caring for a newborn born to an HIV-positive mother, why is immediate administration of zidovudine recommended? 62 A pregnant woman with HIV is advised to start HAART therapy. What is the primary goal of this treatment during pregnancy? 63 In educating an HIV-positive pregnant patient, what should the nurse emphasize about breastfeeding? 64 In educating a pregnant patient with HIV, what should the nurse emphasize about the use of HAART therapy during pregnancy? 65 In planning the delivery for an HIV-positive pregnant patient, what factor primarily influences the decision for a cesarean section? 66 In providing prenatal care for an HIV-positive patient, what is the primary goal of HAART therapy? 67 What is the main goal of administering intravenous zidovudine to an HIV-positive pregnant patient during labor?

Some Important Honours :- • Father of (Modern) Medicine: Hippocrates • Father of Indian Medicine: Charaka • Hindu God of Medicine: Dhanvantari • Father of (Modern) Surgery: Ambroise Pare • Father of Indian Surgery: Sushruta •Father of Epidemiology/Modern Epidemiology: John Snow • Father of Bacteriology: Robert Koch • Father of Biology: Aristotle

Discoveries, Interventions and developments:- • First vaccine developed : Small pox (Edward Jenner) •Term 'Vaccination': Edward Jenner •Term 'Vaccine': Louis Pasteur •Vaccines - Anthrax, Rabies: Louis Pasteur • First Polio Vaccine: Jonas Salk • Penicillin (First antibiotic): Alexander Fleming • Growth Chart: David Morley • Homeopathy: Samuel Hahnemann • Blood group types: Karl Landsteiner •Transmission of Yellow fever: Walter Reed • Life cycle of Plasmodium: Ronald Ross

Few Important Diseases in Public Health :- •Father of Public Health: Cholera • Barometer of Social Welfare: Tuberculosis •Slims' Disease: HIV/AIDS • Black Sickness: Kala Azar (Leishmaniasis) •Black Death: Plague •Cerebrospinal fever: Meningococcal meningitis • Break-bone fever: Dengue • Monkey fever/ disease: KFD (Kyasanur Forest Disease) • 5-day fever :- Trench fever (A highly contagious rickettsial disease infested soldiers in the trenches in the First World War.) smitted by lice, that • 8th day disease: Tetanus neonatorum •100-day cough: Pertussis (Whooping cough) • Koch's Phenomenon: Tuberculosis •Hansen's disease: Leprosy • Rubeola: Measles • Rubella: German measles • Rubula: Mumps

common communicable diseases. --- Measles Cause: Measles virus (paramyxovirus family). Symptoms: Fever, cough, coryza, conjunctivitis, and characteristic rash (Koplik spots). Transmission: Airborne via droplets. Prevention: MMR vaccine. --- Chickenpox Cause: Varicella-zoster virus. Symptoms: Fever, malaise, and vesicular rash. Transmission: Airborne or direct contact with vesicle fluid. Prevention: Varicella vaccine. --- Diphtheria Cause: Corynebacterium diphtheriae. Symptoms: Sore throat, pseudomembrane formation, and potential airway obstruction. Transmission: Droplets. Prevention: DPT vaccine. --- Pertussis (Whooping Cough) Cause: Bordetella pertussis. Symptoms: Severe coughing fits with a "whooping" sound. Transmission: Droplets. Prevention: DPT vaccine. --- Tetanus Cause: Clostridium tetani toxin. Symptoms: Muscle rigidity, spasms (lockjaw). Transmission: Wound contamination. Prevention: Tetanus toxoid vaccine. --- Poliomyelitis Cause: Poliovirus. Symptoms: Fever, paralysis in severe cases. Transmission: Fecal-oral route. Prevention: OPV/IPV vaccine. --- Tuberculosis Cause: Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Symptoms: Chronic cough, weight loss, fever, night sweats. Transmission: Airborne. Prevention: BCG vaccine. --- Typhoid Cause: Salmonella typhi. Symptoms: Prolonged fever, abdominal pain, constipation/diarrhea. Transmission: Fecal-oral route. Prevention: Typhoid vaccine, hygiene practices. --- Leprosy Cause: Mycobacterium leprae. Symptoms: Skin lesions, nerve damage, deformities. Transmission: Prolonged close contact. Prevention: Early treatment with MDT. --- Dengue Cause: Dengue virus (Aedes mosquito vector). Symptoms: High fever, headache, joint pain, rash, bleeding. Transmission: Mosquito bite. Prevention: Mosquito control, dengue vaccine. --- Malaria Cause: Plasmodium species (mosquito vector). Symptoms: Cyclic fever, chills, anemia. Transmission: Mosquito bite. Prevention: Mosquito nets, antimalarial drugs. --- Kala-Azar (Visceral Leishmaniasis) Cause: Leishmania donovani (sandfly vector). Symptoms: Fever, weight loss, hepatosplenomegaly. Transmission: Sandfly bite. Prevention: Vector control. --- Zika Virus Disease Cause: Zika virus (Aedes mosquito vector). Symptoms: Fever, rash, conjunctivitis; risk of congenital defects. Transmission: Mosquito bite, sexual transmission. Prevention: Mosquito control. --- Scrub Typhus Cause: Orientia tsutsugamushi. Symptoms: Fever, rash, eschar at bite site. Transmission: Chigger mite bite. Prevention: Protective clothing, insect repellents. --- Swine Flu Cause: H1N1 influenza virus. Symptoms: Fever, cough, body aches, respiratory distress. Transmission: Airborne. Prevention: Annual flu vaccine. --- COVID-19 Infection Cause: SARS-CoV-2 virus. Symptoms: Fever, cough, loss of smell/taste, respiratory distress. Transmission: Droplets, contact. Prevention: Vaccination, masking, hygiene. --- HIV in Children Cause: Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV). Symptoms: Failure to thrive, recurrent infections. Transmission: Mother-to-child, transfusion. Prevention: PMTCT programs, ART. --- Treatment of Opportunistic Infections Conditions: Infections in immunocompromised (e.g., TB, candidiasis). Management: Antimicrobials and immune restoration. --- Amebiasis Cause: Entamoeba histolytica. Symptoms: Diarrhea, abdominal pain, liver abscess. Transmission: Fecal-oral route. Prevention: Safe drinking water. --- Giardiasis Cause: Giardia lamblia. Symptoms: Diarrhea, bloating, weight loss. Transmission: Contaminated water. Prevention: Water sanitation. --- Filariasis Cause: Wuchereria bancrofti, Brugia species. Symptoms: Elephantiasis, lymphedema. Transmission: Mosquito bite. Prevention: Vector control, DEC prophylaxis. ---

Here are concise, high-yield one-liners for nursing exams: 1. Vital Signs Normal Range: BP 120/80 mmHg, HR 60–100 bpm, RR 12–20/min, Temp 36.5–37.5°C. 2. CPR Ratio: 30:2 compressions to breaths for adults in single-rescuer scenarios. 3. Parkland Formula: Fluids for burns = 4 mL × %TBSA × weight (kg), half in the first 8 hours. 4. Drug Rights: Right patient, drug, dose, route, time, reason, documentation. 5. Infection Control: Standard precautions for all patients; airborne precautions for TB. 6. IV Fluid Types: Isotonic (NS, LR), Hypotonic (0.45% NS), Hypertonic (D5NS). 7. Glasgow Coma Scale: Max score 15, minimum 3; ≤8 indicates coma. 8. Insulin Peaks: Rapid (30-90 min), Regular (2-4 hr), NPH (4-12 hr), Long-acting (no peak). 9. Rule of Nines: Body surface area for burns (e.g., 9% each arm, 18% each leg). 10. Shock Stages: Compensated, decompensated, irreversible; treat with fluids and vasopressors. 11. Decorticate Posture: Flexion, damage to the cortex; Decerebrate: Extension, brainstem damage. 12. Acid-Base Normal Values: pH 7.35–7.45, PaCO₂ 35–45 mmHg, HCO₃ 22–26 mEq/L. 13. ABG Analysis: ROME (Respiratory Opposite, Metabolic Equal) for pH and CO₂/HCO₃ changes. 14. Fundal Height: Correlates with gestational weeks (20 weeks at the umbilicus). 15. Chest Tube Output: >100 mL/hr = notify the physician. 16. Triage Colors: Red (immediate), Yellow (delayed), Green (minor), Black (expectant). 17. APGAR Score: Appearance, Pulse, Grimace, Activity, Respiration; assessed at 1 and 5 minutes. 18. Delegation: RNs handle assessment, education, and critical care; LPNs handle stable patients. 19. Digoxin Toxicity: Symptoms include bradycardia, nausea, and vision changes (yellow halos). 20. Therapeutic Drug Levels: Digoxin (0.5–2 ng/mL), Lithium (0.6–1.2 mEq/L), Phenytoin (10–20 µg/mL). These are essential for quick recall in nursing exams.

Vaccine for cervical cancer

SGPGI 2024 - 60 Nursing Questions : 1 HPV dose = 2 dose 2 Hep B booster = 5 year 3 Which is correct regarding human reproductive system = Fertilisation take place in uterus tube 4 According to fire safety papers are categorised in which fire class ? = Class A 5 8 yr child ET tune size = 6-7 mm 6 ICD chest tube except question = Clamp the tube while shifting 7 Essential AA except = Cysteine 8 Which blood products infused immediately = Thrombocytes 9 Iron absorption = Duodenum 10 AC = Before meal 11 Amiodarone mix with = Dextrose 5% 12 Drug used in Asystole = ADR 13 Benefit of Enteric coated medicine = Do not damage via gastric juice (HCL) 14 Hyperkalemia treatment in cardiac patient = Calcium gluconate 15 Spo2 measures = Ear lobes 16 GCS for = measure consciousness 17 Baby hold bottle = 4-6 month 18 Anterior frontanelle except = close in 1-2 month 19 Weight of baby at 5 month = double 20 NG tube measure = Nose to earlobe to xiphoid process 21 Code of cardiac arrest = Blue 22 Pain rating scale in child = FACES 23 1 ml atropine = 0.6 mg 24 Platelet from in = Bone marrow 25 During CPR initial current = Biphasic 120-200 J 26 35 yr smoking history has risk of = Chronic bronchitis 27 Diaphragm up during normal inspirations = 1-2 cm 28 Snellen chart = For distant vision 29 Meter dose inhaler question = Shake the vial, Inspired deeply & hold breath for 5 second 30 Folic acid giving to prevent NTD = Before conception 31 10 cuts in rode how many parts in iron rode = 11 32 Blood pH = 7.35-7.45 33 ECG P wave represent = Depolarisation atria 34 EMG function = to diagnose skeleton muscle function 35 Which test in not used in non-invasive cardiac function test = Thallium stress test 36 How much sodium in half DNS = 77 Meq/L 37 PRBC used within = 30 minute 38 Hand used in check temperature = Dorsum hand 39 Complication of peritoneal dialysis = Peritonitis 40 Sequence BLS = CAB 41 Drug used in HTN except = metformin 42 Iron used in Z track method = Venteogluteal 43 Non prescriptive contraceptive = Condom 44 Atropin work = Vagus nerve 45 BLS 1st priority = Patient safety 46 Oxygen administered mask question = Ventri mask 47 Pulse used to check after cardiac arrest in adult = Carotid 48 Cause of urosepsis in 75 yr old men = BPH 49 Hormone which produced by gland match correct = Leptin-Ovary 50 Diet giving in cardiac arrest patient = Low sodium & low cholesterol 51 Strongest natural fiber = Silk 52 Bed sore irrigation = Used Normal saline in each shift 53 After dressing give medicine question = remove gloves, wash hand then give medicine