AMC MCQ Recalls – SOMA Academy

(( Al-SalamuAlikum )) Hello Doctors The latest AMC MCQ recalls from May 2026 are now available! These are solved and explained to help you ace your exam preparation. Don’t miss this opportunity to boost your confidence and performance! ✅ Key Features: - Latest and most important MCQs - Detailed solutions and explanations - Perfect for focused revision 🔗 Get Yours Now: https://www.soma.org.uk/p/amcmcqmay2026 📞 Contact Us: - WhatsApp: +1 702 703 7102 / +964 773 962 8249 - Telegram: @AMCMCQ | @DrShakoree 🌐 Visit Us: www.soma.org.uk 💡 Your Success Starts Here! SOMA Support Team

Question 23 A 32-year-old male with an established diagnosis of Bipolar I Disorder presents to the outpatient psychiatric clinic for a scheduled review. Over the past three weeks, his family notes that he has become increasingly talkative, staying up until 3:00 AM working on elaborate home improvement projects, and spending money excessively on tools. On evaluation, he is mildly agitated, speaks rapidly with pressured speech, and demonstrates flight of ideas. However, he maintains good hygiene, has missed no days of work, continues to perform his administrative job duties effectively without reprimand, and shows no evidence of delusions, hallucinations, or suicidal ideation. He strongly requests a medication change to help stabilize his mood. What is the most appropriate first-line pharmacotherapy? a) Oral Sertraline b) Oral Quetiapine c) Oral Clozapine d) Oral Haloperidol e) Oral Fluoxetine @DrShakoree @amcmcq #April2026@amcmcq

Question 21 A 6-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her parents 2 hours after falling awkwardly onto her outstretched left arm while playing on a playground jungle gym. She is crying and complaining of agonizing pain in her left elbow. Physical examination reveals obvious posterior displacement, marked edema, and deformity of the distal humerus, confirming a displaced supracondylar fracture. On neurovascular assessment, the left radial pulse is completely non-palpable, and the left hand appears cool, pale, and has a delayed capillary refill time of 4 seconds. She is unable to flex her left index finger or thumb normally. What is the most appropriate next step in the acute management of this patient? a) Urgent emergent open surgical fasciotomy of the forearm compartments b) Immediate closed reduction under sedation or anesthesia with urgent orthopedic surgical consult c) Absolute immobilization in a long-arm plaster splint followed by observation d) Immediate CT angiogram of the upper extremity to map the brachial artery e) Application of a tight elastic pressure wrap to reduce local soft tissue swelling @DrShakoree @amcmcq #April2026@amcmcq

Question 20 A 50-year-old female presents to the pre-admission clinic ahead of an elective, scheduled laparoscopic ventral hernia repair. She has no personal or family history of venous thromboembolism (VTE), does not smoke, has a normal body mass index (BMI) of 22 kg/m², and takes no regular medications. Her baseline cardiovascular, respiratory, and hematological examinations are entirely unremarkable. The anticipated duration of the laparoscopic surgical procedure is approximately 45 minutes, and she is expected to be fully ambulatory shortly after recovering from general anesthesia. According to Australian surgical guidelines, what is the most appropriate venous thromboembolism prophylaxis regimen for this patient? a) Intermittent Pneumatic Compression (IPC) devices alone b) Combined Intermittent Pneumatic Compression (IPC) and Low-Molecular-Weight Heparin (LMWH) c) Graduated compression stockings combined with twice-daily subcutaneous Unfractionated Heparin d) Routine early post-operative ambulation and hydration without mechanical or chemical prophylaxis e) Low-Molecular-Weight Heparin (LMWH) alone starting 2 hours post-operatively @DrShakoree @amcmcq #April2026@amcmcq

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Question 18 A 34-year-old female presents with a long-standing history of color changes in her fingers. She notes that during cold weather or when reaching into a freezer, her fingertips turn starkly white, then deeply blue, and eventually red and painful upon rewarming. She has attempted wearing thick wool gloves, but this has failed to provide sufficient protection or symptom relief. She denies any history of digital ulcers, skin tightening, joint pain, or dry eyes. Physical examination reveals normal skin turgor, no sclerodactyly, and normal capillary loops on nailfold capillaroscopy. She is motivated to find an effective pharmacological option to minimize these painful episodes. What is the most appropriate first-line pharmacological treatment? a) Oral Nifedipine b) Topical Nitroglycerin (GTN) 0.2% gel c) Oral Low-dose Aspirin d) Oral Amlodipine e) Oral Sildenafil @DrShakoree @amcmcq #April2026@amcmcq

Question 17 A 29-year-old male who recently emigrated from sub-Saharan Africa to Australia presents to a general practice clinic for a mandatory routine health screening. He reports feeling entirely well, has no active systemic complaints, and denies cough, fever, night sweats, or unintentional weight loss. On physical review, he appears fit and healthy with unremarkable vital signs. Heart and lung sounds are normal, and there is no lymphadenopathy or hepatosplenomegaly. Routine baseline blood tests reveal an isolated eosinophilia of 2.4 × 10⁹/L (normal < 0.5 × 10⁹/L). A rapid diagnostic test for malaria performed three days prior was fully negative. Liver function tests and renal function panels are within normal limits. What is the most appropriate next diagnostic step? a) Serum IgE and Radioallergosorbent (RAST) allergy panel b) Repeat rapid antigen diagnostic testing for malaria c) Leptospirosis serum serology panel d) Schistosomiasis serology testing e) Microscopic stool examination for ova and parasites @DrShakoree @amcmcq #April2026@amcmcq

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(Question 13) A 24-year-old male recently returned to Australia after spending six months working in rural Africa. He presents with a one-month history of a dry cough, a low-grade fever (37.8°C), and a 10 kg weight loss. On auscultation, there are crepitations at the left lung base. A chest X-ray shows an opacity in the same region. What is the most appropriate initial investigation to confirm the suspected diagnosis? a) Computed tomography (CT) scan of the chest b) Bronchoscopy with lavage c) Sputum culture for Acid-Fast Bacilli (AFB) d) Serum QuantiFERON-TB Gold test e) Pleural fluid aspiration and culture @DrShakoree @amcmcq #April2026@amcmcq

(Question 12) A 28-year-old woman who is 24 weeks pregnant presents with recurrent episodes of biliary colic. An ultrasound confirms the presence of multiple gallstones and a thickened gallbladder wall. She has no signs of jaundice or pancreatitis. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation regarding surgery? a) Wait until after delivery to perform any surgical intervention b) Perform an elective cholecystectomy due to high risk of complications c) Immediate emergency cholecystectomy within 24 hours d) Manage with a low-fat diet and reassess in the third trimester e) Use ursodeoxycholic acid to dissolve the stones during pregnancy @DrShakoree @amcmcq #April2026@amcmcq

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(Question 10) A 28-year-old woman, G1P1, has just delivered a healthy baby. She experiences a postpartum hemorrhage with an estimated blood loss of 1200 mL. On examination, the uterine fundus is found to be firm and well-contracted. A 2nd-degree vaginal tear is noted. What is the most appropriate next step in investigating the cause of the ongoing bleeding? a) Immediate fundal massage b) Administration of additional Oxytocin c) Uterine artery embolization d) B-Lynch suture placement e) Thorough cervical and vaginal examination @DrShakoree @amcmcq #April2026@amcmcq

(Question 8) A young couple visits a general practitioner for preconception counseling. Both the man and the woman have a diagnosis of schizophrenia. They are currently stable on medication and are planning to have children. They ask about the risk of their future child developing schizophrenia. Based on current genetic data, what is the approximate risk? a) Approximately 1% (general population risk) b) 10% to 13% c) 40% to 46% d) 75% to 80% e) Virtually 100% @DrShakoree @amcmcq

2. A 3-year-old boy is seen for a routine well-child checkup. His parents express concern that he seems "clumsy" compared to his older siblings at the same age. They specifically note that he struggles with fine motor tasks and they worry he is falling behind in his developmental milestones. On examination, the child is cooperative and follows simple commands. Which of the following fine motor achievements would most accurately indicate that this child is meeting the expected developmental milestones for a 3-year-old? a.Using safety scissors to cut out a circle b.Building a bridge using three small wooden blocks c.Fully buttoning a front-opening shirt without assistance d.Completing a complex jigsaw puzzle of 12 pieces e.Printing their own first name legibly

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Question 9 A 3-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents with a 12-hour history of sudden, episodic abdominal pain. The parents describe that the boy appears perfectly fine one moment, then suddenly screams in agony, draws his knees up to his chest, and vomits bile-stained fluid. These episodes occur every 15 to 20 minutes. He has passed two loose stools containing streaks of blood and mucus within the last 4 hours. On physical examination, the child is lethargic between episodes. His abdomen is mildly distended, and an abdominal radiograph (AXR) shows a few non-specific dilated loops of small bowel with an absence of gas in the right lower quadrant. Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnostic imaging investigation to confirm the suspected condition? A) Barium enema radiography B) Barium swallow and small bowel follow-through C) Abdominal ultrasound D) Contrast-enhanced CT scan of the abdomen E) Radionuclide Meckel's diverticulum scan @amcmcq #mayrecalls2026

Question 225 A 38-year-old female presents to a general practice clinic expressing deep distress over her marriage. She reports that she is absolutely certain her husband is engaging in an extramarital affair. When the clinician explores her reasoning, she states that her absolute proof lies in the fact that for the past two weeks, he has stopped eating the specific brand of breakfast cereal that she purchases for him every morning, which she interprets as a clear sign that he is being fed breakfast by another woman. She acknowledges that he has no past history of infidelity, works regular hours, and that she has found no messages or physical evidence. What specific feature of her thought process classifies this belief as a true delusion? a) The fact that she maintains an absolute, unshakeable conviction in the truth of the thought despite a total lack of logical or objective evidence b) The documented historical fact that her husband had cheated on her once early in their marriage ten years ago c) The biochemical reality that changing a breakfast cereal preference is a known physiological sign of emotional distress d) The presence of significant baseline marital discord and frequent arguments over their household finances e) The fact that her sister agrees with her suspicion and validates her concerns @AMCMCQ

Question 156An 8-month-old infant is brought to the emergency department with a 3-day history of worsening cough, tachypnea, and poor feeding. On physical examination, the infant is visibly lethargic, has a respiratory rate of 62 breaths per minute, subcostal retractions, and widespread bilateral coarse crackles on auscultation. The capillary refill time is prolonged at 4 seconds, the oral mucosa is dry, and the infant is entirely unable to tolerate oral fluids. A clinical diagnosis of severe bronchopneumonia with secondary decompensated hypovolemic shock is established. What is the most appropriate initial fluid management strategy for this infant?A. Administer an immediate intravenous bolus of 20 mL/kg of 0.9% normal saline.B. Commence maintenance fluids using 0.45% sodium chloride with 5% dextrose via an intraosseous needle.C. Insert a nasogastric tube and begin slow enteral administration of oral rehydration solution.D. Commence maintenance fluids using 5% dextrose in water ($D_5W$) at full maintenance rate.E. Administer an immediate intravenous bolus of 20 mL/kg of 5% albumin solution.