Case-based MCQ

🏅Make Sure To Join All These Medical Pages👇🏻👇🏻

⏳ Case-based MCQ | #Case_395 〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰 A 76 year-old man is brought to the emergency department with colicky abdominal pain and abdominal distention for the past 24 hours He has not passed any stool or gas since He gives the history of constipation for the past month His past medical history is significant for appendectomy at the age of 42 years On examination, he has stable vital signs Abdominal exam reveals a distended abdomen, tympanic to percussion No tenderness, rebound tenderness or guarding ts elicited Rectum is empty with no mass.

⏳ Case-based MCQ | #Case_394 | #answer 〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰 ✅ B Vancomycin can cause several different types of hypersensitivity reactions, ranging from localized skin reactions to generalized cardiovascular collapse. Red man syndrome (RMS) is the most reported adverse reaction. RMS, also called "red neck syndrome" is a rate-dependent infusion reaction, not a true allergic reaction. The etiology is unknown but it does not involve drug-specific antibodies and, in contrast to allergic reactions, may develop with the first administration of vancomycin. RMS is characterized by flushing, erythema, and pruritus, usually affecting the upper body, neck, and face more than the lower body. Pains and muscle spasms in the back and chest, dyspnea, and hypotension may also occur. Chest pain and chest tightness are other reprted clinical features. RMS is rarely life-threatening; however, severe cardiovascular toxicity and even cardiac arrest can occur. IgE-mediated anaphylaxis can present with symptoms similar those of severe RMS. Unlike RMS, an IgE-mediated reaction to vancomycin does not occur with first administration. However, there may be some characteristics distinguishing features. While wheezing, respiratory, and angioedema are more common in anaphylaxis, chest pain or a sense of chest tightness is seen more frequently in RMS. 🔖 NOTE - Since it may not be possible to distinguish anaphylaxis from severe RMS based on clinical presentation, the patient should be assumed to have anaphylaxis and treated promptly if in doubt. Concomitant use of some drugs associated with histamine release may increase the risk of vancomycin adverse reactions. Opiates and contrast media are the most implicated medications. Some studies suggest that the dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers - nifedipine may increase the risk of vancomycin-related adverse drug interaction. Management of RMS is as follows: For mild to moderate reactions, in which the patient is uncomfortable due to flushing or pruritus, but without hemodynamic instability, chest pain or muscle spasms, the infusion should be interrupted and patient be treated with diphenhydramine (50 mg orally or intravenously) and ranitidine (50 mg intravenously). Symptoms usually subside promptly. The infusion can then be restarted at one-half of the initial rate or 10 mg/min, whichever is slower. For Severe reactions associated with muscle spasms, chest pain, or hypotension, the infusion should be interrupted and the patient be treated with diphenhydramine (50 mg intravenously) and ranitidine (50 mg intravenously), and intravenous fluids if there is hypotension. Once symptoms have resolved, the infusion can be restarted, and given over 4 or more hours. For future administration in such patients, premedication with antihistamines before each dose and infusion over 4 hours is recommended. If the reaction to vancomycin is anaphylaxis type, immediate treatment would be intramuscular adrenaline. Vancomycin should never be given again, unless desensitization is performed. Hives, laryngeal edema, and wheezing are suggestive of anaphylaxis. This patient has typical presentation of RMS. Since chest tightness is present, the management would be restarting the infusion at a slower rate (over 4 hours) as well as premedication with histamine (and ranitidine). Unlike antihistamines, addition of prednisolone to vancomycin has not shown to decrease the risk of recurrence of RMS.

Best Medical Channels On Telegram: @Dr.Najeeb @Essential_Anatomy @Ninja_Nerd @Dr_Pdf @Pathoma_Videos @Surgery_Videos @Doctors_in_Training @Usmle_Videos @NeetPG_Books @Lecturio_vid @Mediscussion @DrNajb @Drnejib_Notes @Osmsis

Best Medical Channels On Telegram: @Dr.Najeeb @Essential_Anatomy @Ninja_Nerd @Dr_Pdf @Pathoma_Videos @Surgery_Videos @Doctors_in_Training @Usmle_Videos @NeetPG_Books @Lecturio_vid @Mediscussion @DrNajb @Drnejib_Notes @Osmsis

⏳ Case-based MCQ | #Case_394 〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰 During hospital stay of a 62-year-old woman, she develops pneumonia. Since methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is highly suspected, intravenous vancomycin is started. After 20 minutes of infusion, the patient develops a generalized pruritic erythematous rash all over her face, torso and arms. She also complains of chest tightness. The infusion is stopped immediately, and within few minutes the rash resolves. A quick drug history reveals that he is on aspirin and amilodipine for treatment of her hypertension.

⏳ Case-based MCQ | #Case_393 | #answer 〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰 ✅ B Delirium following a major surgery in the elderly is a common postoperative complication. Delirium and confusional state after surgery are most commonly caused by hypoxia. Hypoxia can be caused by the effect of hypoventilation due to anesthetics or analgesics, or simply by shallow breathing due to pain. Fluid and electrolyte disturbances, hypoglycemia, or infections can also cause post-operative delirium. Alcohol withdrawal or delirium tremens are other important etiologies not to miss. Urinary retention or fecal impaction should be thought of as well. Management of delirium is by identification of the underlying etiology and treating it. This woman is febrile, making infection a likely cause of her delirious state. Atthough prophylactic antibiotics decrease the risk of post-operative infections, they do not eliminated such risk. A confused and delirious patient can be difficult to deal with at times, and pharmacological treatment should be considered for sedation before other diagnostic or therapeutic measures are carried out. An ABG is often the very initial step to exclude hypoxemia as the most likely cause of delirium, but attempts to obtain an arterial sample in an agitated delirious patient is not easy and may result in arterial injuries in a combative patient. An agitated patient may not let an oxygen face mask to be fixed in place. Under such conditions, medications are used to sedate and calm the patient. Haloperidol is a convenient drug, which is most frequently used for this purpose and is the most appropriate next step in management. Atypical antipsychotics such as risperidone, olanzapine or ziprasidone are second-line choices that can be used as alternatives; however, in the presence of extrapyramidal symptoms, they should be use in preference to haloperidole. Intravenous diazepam (not an option) is the medication of choice if alcohol withdrawal or delirium tremens are suspected from the history and clinical findings. NOTE - Pharmacological therapy should only be considered in a delirious person with severe behavioral disturbance and/or severe emotional disturbance if their behavior threatens their own safety or the safety of others, is likely to interfere with essential medical or nursing care, or if the disturbance is causing significant distress ⚠ (Option A) Although the patient is febrile, antibiotics should not be administered unless bacterial infections are suspected after initial investigations such as full blood count (FBC), chest X-ray, etc. ⚠ (Option B) This patient has a normal blood pressure and does not seem to be in urgent need for fluid resuscitation. However, it may be considered if further studies indicate otherwise. ⚠ (Options D and E) ABG is often the first-line investigation to exclude hypoxia as the most common cause of post-operative delirium/confusion. A chest X-ray is indicated for evaluation and workup of conditions such as atelectasis, pneumonia or pulmonary embolism if the patient is found to be hypoxic/hypoxemic. Again, obtaining an arterial sample for ABG can be difficult in this patient and should be attempted once the patient is easier to deal with

⏳ Case-based MCQ | #Case_393 〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰 A nurse from the surgery ward calls you to visit a 65-year-old inward patient for agitation. When you arrive at the ward you are informed that she underwent cholecystectomy 48 hours ago. Her file shows that she received prophylactic amoxicillin prior to the surgery. On examination, she is confused and delirious, has a blood pressure of 135/87mmHg, heart rate of 110 and temperature of 38.4°C. She is agitated and difficult to deal with.

⏳ Case-based MCQ | #Case_392 | #answer 〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰 ✅ C This man has bilateral global weakness of distal arms and muscle wasting of both thenar (median-innervated) and hypothenar (ulnar-innervated) eminences. Of the options, syringomyelia best justified the bilaterality of the signs and symptoms, as well as multiple nerves involvement. Syringomyelia is the development of a fluid-filled cavity (syrinx) within the spinal cord. Syrinx extension into the anterior horns of the spinal cord damages motor neurons (lower motor neuron) and causes diffuse muscle atrophy that begins in the hands and progresses proximally to include the forearms and shoulder girdles. Claw-hand may develop. Syrinx also interrupts the decussating spinothalamic fibers that mediate pain and temperature sensibility, resulting in loss of these sensations, while light touch, vibration, and position senses are preserved because their fibers are located in the posterior column that are not affected unless late in the course of the disease (dissociated sensory loss). When the cavity enlarges to involve the posterior columns, position and vibration senses are lost as well. The sensory disturbances usually occur in a shawl-like distribution. ⚠ (Option A) Cervical spine multiple sclerosis can cause muscle weakness, exaggerated reflexes and decreased sensation of the upper limb; however, bilateral symptoms of this patient makes multiple sclerosis a less likely diagnosis. ⚠ (Option B) Bilateral median nerve palsy can cause bilateral atrophy of thenar eminence but not that of hypothenar eminence. ⚠ (Option D) Bilateral ulnar nerve palsy can cause bilateral atrophy of hypothenar eminence but not that of thenar eminence. ⚠ (Option E) Brainstem infarction is associated with contralateral limb weakness. Bilaterality is against brainstem infarction as a likely diagnosis

⏳ Case-based MCQ | #Case_392 〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰 A 28-year-old man presents with distal weakness and atrophy of the small muscles of both hands including interossei and lumbricals as well as thenar and hypothenar eminences.

⏳ Case-based MCQ | #Case_391 | #answer 〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰 ✅ C The scenario is consistent with Wilms tumor (nephroblastoma) as the most likely diagnosis. Wilms tumor is the most common intraabdominal tumor of childhood that often is diagnosed at 2 to 3 years of age. Most cases are sporadic, and only a few percent have a family history. Wilms tumor suppressor gene, WT1, is located on chromosome 11 and regulates normal kidney development. In approximately 20% of cases with Wilms tumor, there is a mutation of this gene. Most children with Wilms tumor presents with abdominal mass or swelling without other signs and symptoms. Other symptoms, if present, can include abdominal pain (between 25-40% according to different studies), hematuria (12-25%), fever, and hypertension (25%). Hypertension is the result of the tumor compressing the renal artery, renal hypoperfusion, and activation of renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. The characteristic finding on examination is a smooth firm non-tender palpable abdominal mass that usually does not cross the midline. ⚠ (Option A) Hepatoblastoma is rare hepatic malignancy in children. Patients with hepatoblastoma are usually asymptomatic. The disease is advanced at diagnosis in approximately 40% of patients, and 20% have pulmonary metastases. Children with advanced disease may have anorexia. Severe osteopenia is present in most patients and regresses with resection of the tumor;osteopenia is often asymptomatic. Rarely, patients in whom the tumor has ruptured present with symptoms consistent with acute abdomen. Occasionally, patients present with severe anemia resulting from tumor rupture and hemorrhage. ⚠ (Option B) Neuroblastoma, which is almost exclusively a disease of children,is the third most common childhood cancer after leukemia and brain tumors, and is the most common solid extracranial tumor in children. Neuroblastoma can also present with an abdominal mass, but the condition is expected to be diagnosed earlier compared to Wilms tumor, usually before the age of 2 years. Two-thirds (-65%) of neuroblastomas arise within the abdomen, of these 2/3 originate from adrenal glands.The abdominal mass seen in neuroblastoma is hard, irregular and non-tender and can extend beyond the midline. Other symptoms may include loss of appetite and weight loss, malaise, protrusion of one or both eyes. Other symptoms may be caused by compression effect the of tumor or metastases on the adjacent structures. ⚠ (Option D) Pyelonephritis can be associated with costovertebral angle tenderness but not a palpable mass. Fever is often a feature. Most importantly, it does not manifest as long standing intermittent abdominal pain with full resolution. ⚠ (Option E) Pancreatic tumors are extremely rare in children

⏳ Case-based MCQ | #Case_391 〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰 A 4-year-old is boy is brought to your attention with complaints of intermittent abdominal pain. Each episode lasted for a maximum of 2 to 3 hours before it completely subsided. He has been quite asymptomatic in between the episodes. This time, however, the pain has lasted for 12 hours. On examination, he is afebrile but a mass is palpated in the right upper quadrant (RUQ). The mass is not tender.

⏳ Case-based MCQ | #Case_390 | #answer 〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰〰 ✅ B 🔎 Explanation The first point that should be noted is the arterial pressure of the oxygen that is above 100 mmHg. There are only two scenarios for an elevated Pa02 above 100 mmHg: 1. Hyperventilation of high concentration oxygen 2. Sampling errors - if there is an air bubble in the blood sample, the Pa02 will be falsely elevated to a level approximate to the oxygen pressure of the room air (almost 140 mmHg) while the PaC02 is falsely decreased. In this patient, sampling error is the cause of the ABG reading because if the cause was hyperventilation of oxygen the PaC02 was expected to be normal or even decreased. In fact, despite the oxygen level on ABG, he is still hypoxic due to suppressed respiratory drive; therefore, the next best step in management would be giving the patient more naloxone to counteract the suppressive effect of opiate on respiratory drive and achieving a respiratory rate of 12 breaths per minute or higher. In the meanwhile the patient should be ventilated with bag and mask attached to the oxygen. If reversal of normal breathing with maximum dose of naloxone is not achieved, other diagnoses should be considered. Intubation and ventilation must be considered if the patient cannot maintain his/her airway patent or treatment with naloxone fails to raise the respiratory rate of the patient. 🔖 NOTE - in approaching to a patient with opiate overdose, the first priority is ensuring airway patency with securing an airway, suction of oropharyngeal secretions and supplemental oxygen, and establishing an intravenous line. The next urgent step is always intravenous naloxone. The patient should receive assisted ventilation with bag and mask attached to 100% oxygen until the target respiratory rate is reached (s12 breaths per minute). ⚠ (Option A) While this patient has hypercarbia and a respiratory rate of 6 breaths ber minute, a reduction in oxygen flow will result in deterioration of his condition. ⚠ (Option C) Repeating the ABG may be indicated after treatment with further doses of naloxone. ⚠ (Option D) Opiate level measurement is not indicated in this scenario. ⚠ (Option E) Intubation and ventilation at this point is not necessary unless indicated otherwise. If the case is opiate overdose, adequate treatment with naoloxone will treat the respiratory suppression

Hello guys We just made a group for doctors who want to Practice in Australia 🇦🇺 We now need an admin or admins with enough information to help us on the way to immigrate to Australia as Physician, and also how to get medical residency there. Please let us know in the group if you are ready to cooperate. t.me/practice_in_australia Share with your friends ✌